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Exam Code: P6040-014
Exam Name: IBM SurePOS 500 Models 5x5 Technical Mastery
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Exam Code: C2170-008
Exam Name: IBM Curam V6 Development
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Exam Code: P2090-046
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NO.1 Which of the following statements about InfoSphere Data Architect is correct?
A. You CANNOT create a logical model from a physical model
B. InfoSphere Data Architect can deploy physical data models directly to the database management
system
C. Reverse engineering data models only works for DB2 databases
D. InfoSphere Data Architect is installed using the Information Server installation wizard
Answer: B

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NO.2 In DataStage, which client can be used to set environment variables at project level?
A. DataStage Designer
B. DataStage Administrator
C. DataStage Director
D. Information Server Web Console
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following statements about Collecting methods is correct?
A. ROUND ROBIN is the fastest algorithm
B. SORT MERGE never performs data sorting
C. ORDERED ensures the collected data stream being sorted
D. AUTO chooses the best method between ROUND ROBIN, SORT MERGE, and ORDERED
Answer: B

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NO.4 With DataStage Designer you CANNOT __________.
A. Design jobs that extract, integrate, and transform the data for data warehouse
B. Create and reuse Table Definitions
C. Compile and execute the DataStage jobs
D. Configure the deployment model
Answer: D

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NO.5 In DataStage, Table Definitions can be imported through __________.
A. DataStage Administrator
B. Information Server Web Console
C. DataStage Designer
D. DataStage Director
Answer: C

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NO.6 Where are Table Definitions stored?
A. Information Server metadata repository
B. In the file system as a binary file
C. In the file system as a csv file
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which tool below can be used to assign permissions to users for each DataStage project?
A. Information Server Web Console
B. DataStage Administrator
C. DataStage Director
D. DataStage Designer
Answer: B

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NO.8 In which situation below can you use the Metadata Asset Manager with the MetaBrokers and
Bridges (Import/Export Manager) to import metadata into the Metadata Repository?
A. To bring runtime information about DataStage jobs into the Metadata Repository
B. To bring FastTrack mapping specifications into the Metadata Repository
C. To bring Cognos BI reports and queries into the Metadata Repository
D. To bring a blueprint from Blueprint Director into the Metadata Repository
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Exam Code: A2040-403
Exam Name: IBM Forms 8.0 - Form Design and Development
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Exam Code: C2090-731
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NO.1 What is the default namespace prefix for an IBM Form?
A. xmlns:xforms
B. xmlns:default
C. xmlns:custom
D. xmlns:xfdl
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the statements below describes a benefit of XFDL?
A. XFDL simplifies HTML programming.
B. XFDL makes pre-populating form data easier because of its code level engine.
C. XFDL future-proofs electronic forms as they are in human-readable XML.
D. XFDL documents can be rendered by any word processing software.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following is the best practice to set a IBM Forms data element as read only?
A. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" readonly="true()"/>
B. <field sid="birthdate"><readonly>on</readonly></field>
C. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" readonly="true"/>
D. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" properties="readonly"/>
Answer: A

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NO.4 Where can spell checking for the Designer be enabled or disabled?
A. In the Spell Check section of the Forms Designer heading in the Preferences.
B. On the file system, by removing or replacing the dictionary files in the Designer's install folder.
C. In the global form properties dialog.
D. From the Preferences dialog opened from the Viewer's toolbar.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement below best describes XFDL functions?
A. XFDL functions provide a way to perform complex calculations.
B. XFDL functions can be extended via User-Defined functions.
C. XFDL functions provide out-of-the-box functionality via two packages: viewer and system.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.6 How is an XForms submission handled by the Translator Server?
A. The Client's Browser sends the XForms submission as XML directly to the submission URL.
B. The Client's Browser sends the XForms submission as HTML directly to the submission URL.
C. The Translator Server sends the XForms submission as XML directly to the submission URL.
D. The Translator Server sends the XForms submission as HTML directly to the submission URL.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A developer is working in IBM Forms Designer using the Standard IBM Forms perspective.
Which
of the following statements is TRUE?
A. XForms model information is always generated automatically in the background.
B. The form cannot contain an XForms model.
C. The developer should switch to the Advanced perspective to add an XForms data model.
D. XForms model information is generated automatically unless the developer indicated the form
should not contain a data model.
Answer: D

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NO.8 When creating a field that can change its height based on the amount of data it contains,
which of
the following should occur?
A. The field should also be able to change width dynamically.
B. Items that appear below the field on the page should come after it in the build order.
C. Items that appear below the field should be relatively positioned so that they move up or down
as the field changes size.
D. Items that appear below the field on the page should come after it in the build order, and should
be relativelypositioned so that they move upor down as the field changes size.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C2010-652
Exam Name: IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5 Fundamentals
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NO.1 What is the IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5 (SCCD) application server used for?
A. To apply SCCD fix packs
B. To generate SCCD EAR files
C. To provide a SCCD runtime environment
D. To customize Maximo Business Object Java code
Answer: C

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NO.2 What functionality will a user need to define a set of tasks that will be applied to the Service
Request once the Catalog Request is submitted and approved?
A. Job Plan
B. Fulfillment Plan
C. Ticket Template
D. Fulfillment Template
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are two appropriate Key Performance Indicators for the Service Catalog Management
Process? (Choose two.)
A. Number of accesses per month
B. Number of calls to the service desk
C. Percent of users who use the service catalog
D. Percent of users who are aware of the service catalog
E. Number of services published including Service Level Agreements/Targets
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 When installing an enterprise solution, which edition of IBM SmartCloud Control Desk can be
installed?
A. Only Entry Edition
B. Any product edition
C. Only Everyplace Edition
D. Only Service Provider Edition
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two activities are included in the scope of IT Asset management? (Choose two.)
A. Risk Management
B. License Management
C. Security Management
D. Inventory Management
E. Configuration Management
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 What are three types of IBM SmartCloud Control Desk offerings? (Choose three.)
A. Action
B. Descriptive
C. Work Order
D. Work Request
E. Service Catalog
F. Service Request
Answer: A,B,F

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NO.7 What is the purpose of domains within IBM SmartCloud Control Desk?
A. To allow global searches across areas of an organization
B. To specify ownership of a set of objects within the product
C. To separate configuration items and assets into geographical areas
D. To maintain a value list that can be used in fields within the product
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the purpose of the Promotion process?
A. To create configuration items (CI) from Actual CIs
B. To create Actual CIs from CIs
C. To enable CIs to be used in the Change Management process
D. To enable Actual CIs to be used in the Change Management process
Answer: A

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Exam Code: A2010-939
Exam Name: Assess: IBM Tivoli Change and Configuration Manager Database V7.1.1
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NO.1 Which two statements are true about the Common Data Model. (Choose two.)
A.The Common Data Model is based on LDAP.
B.The Discovery Library XML Schema is called IML.
C.The Discovery Library XML Schema is called IdML.
D.The Discovery Library Adapters use SOAP to interface with the Common Data Model.
E.Discovery Library Adapters enable the import and export of data according to the Common
Data Model.
Answer: CE

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NO.2 Which statement is true about TADDM and CCMDB?
A.CCMDB is a required component of TADDM.
B.TADDM is a required component of CCMDB.
C.TADDM and CCMDB must be installed on the same system.
D.CCMDB serves as a discovery tool, while TADDM serves as a data repository.
Answer: B

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NO.3 When should existing middleware be reused?
A.when reusing existing access policies
B.when a quick CCMDB deployment is top priority
C.when security policies prevent administrator access to new hardware
D.when security policies prevent the creation of a new database or application server
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the application that contains the impact analysis feature in CCMDB?
A.Work Management
B.Change Management
C.Problem Management
D.Workflow Management
Answer: B

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NO.5 Given that the customer's IT environment has been verified, which two prerequisite
steps need to be
taken to ensure that CCMDB requirements have been met? (Choose two.)
A.examine the DBMS to be utilized for meeting requirements
B.examine the platform (OS) for the DB server for meeting requirements
C.examine the LDAP interface with the Common Data Model for meeting requirements
D.examine the SOAP interface with the Common Data Model for meeting requirements
E.examine the communication between the authentication client and the authentication
server for meeting
requirements
Answer: AB

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NO.6 Which statement is true regarding process managers?
A.Each is a customized version of its Tivoli process automation engine.
B.All process managers run through the Tivoli process automation engine.
C.Each process manager must install its own Tivoli process automation engines for CCMDB.
D.All process managers are run only by the Tivoli process automation engine's administrator.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Given that the customer's IT environment has been verified, which two prerequisite
steps need to be
taken to ensure that CCMDB requirements have been met? (Choose two.)
A.examine the OS platform for the TADDM server for meeting requirements
B.examine the LDAP interface with the Common Data Model for meeting requirements
C.examine the SOAP interface with the Common Data Model for meeting requirements
D.examine the hardware specifications for the Windows Administrative console for meeting
requirements
E.examine the communication between the authentication client and the authentication
server for meeting
requirements
Answer: AD

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NO.8 One of the tasks that must be performed to install CCMDB is to analyze the roles and
responsibilities
of individuals in the project.
Which step must be performed to create a document to map the activities and tasks to
specific roles in a
CCMDB deployment?
A.define the level of effort for each task
B.define the roles involved in the process
C.define the tasks that will be performed during the project
D.create a Project Plan to outline what steps will be performed
Answer: B

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NO.1 You can use the HUAWEI OceanStor Toolkit to perform the operations such as preventive
maintenance, information collection, and upgrade for the HUAWEI OceanStor 9000.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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NO.2 When configuring file systems for the N8500 clustered NAS storage systems, you are advised
to configure a file system size not larger than 32 TB and the size of small-file storage applications
not larger than 16 TB to achieve satisfactory reliability and data recovery speed. (The small files
here refer to the files with an average size of 1 MB.)
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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NO.3 The HUAWEI OceanStor 9000 can be managed using web browsers. If an OceanStor 9000
storage system uses default settings, which of the following entered in the browser address box is
correct?
A. https://IP:httpsport/webui
B. http://IP:httpsport/tools
C. http://IP:httpsport
D. https;//IP:httpsport
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following statements about N8500 troubleshooting is incorrect?
A. Check file system configurations, and then check storage device configurations.
B. Check network connection, and then check NAS device configurations.
C. Check device indicators, and then check system logs.
D. Check the status of storage unit disk enclosures, and then check the status of storage unit
controller enclosures.
Answer: D

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NO.5 The flexible space of the OceanStor 9000 is attributed to the scale-out architecture, scalability
from 3 to 288 nodes, and support for global namespace.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which command is used to monitor the CPU usage in performance optimization of the
N8500 clustered NAS storage systems?
A. sar -u 3 3
B. sar -r 3 3
C. sar -n DEV 2 2
D. sar -n CPU 2 2
Answer: A

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NO.7 When configuring an N8500 clustered NAS engine, a user must specify the start and end
physical IP addresses and the start and end virtual IP addresses,
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
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NO.8 Which of the following statements about the VCS services and resources provided by a
clustered NAS system are correct? (Select 3 answers)
A. A dependency relationship between service groups can be defined.
B. A dependency relationship between resources can be defined,
C. Each resource corresponds to one agent.
D. Resource dependency relationships can be defined in a cyclic manner.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.1 Installing the AIX platform, multi- path, multi- path need to see the priority attribute, you can
use the which command?
A. cfgmgr
B. upadm show path
C. lspv
D. lspath
Answer: D

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NO.2 With the same specifications, the number of hard drives in the RAID group established in
reading and writing in the same business, Raid10 random write performance and Raid5 random
write performance is roughly equal.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.3 For common maintenance tool storage array, the error is described below.
A. Information gathering tool with a graphical interface operation,cross- operating
system,multilanguage switching,free installation features
B. Upgrade Checker.a check items automatically determine and reduce risk, lower skill requirements
characteristics
C. Business management functions can be achieved visually displays the current connection status
topology
D. DHA Service management is a hard disk health data collection / performance data storage,
support for start and stop, set,export, return
Answer: C

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NO.4 Remote replication between storage arrays are based on file-level replication.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.5 If the LUN on the storage array to create a virtual snapshot of the data in case the source LUN
is not to remove, what methods can be used to recover the data? (Choose two)
A. Source LUN snapshot rollback operation
B. The snapshot of the source LUN LUN mapping to the host,the host side to recover
C. Source LUN snapshot activate operation activation
D. The snapshot source LUN mirroring operation
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 S5000 full amount LUN copy must interrupt the host for the S5000 source LUN data read and
write operations.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.7 Snapshot of the storage array, LUN copy and remote replication, the following statement is
correct. (Choose two)
A. You can do both on a LUN snapshot and replication do
B. A remote copy of the source LUN can be used as another remote replication target LUN
C. A remote copy can be used as another source LUN LUN LUN copy source
D. Cannotdo both on a LUN snapshot and do remote replication
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 For solaris systems, the following statement is correct about the STMS. (Choose three)
A. solaris10 system comes stms package,no additional installation
B. Will require the use of a command function is enabled stms restart the host port
C. stmsboot managing multi- path characteristics solaris management program
D. Ultrapath can be installed on solaris multipath software to support multi -pathing
Answer: A,B,C

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Exam Name: Board Certified Assistant Behavior Analyst
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NO.1 What does this graph depict?
A. current level and data path of the response measure
B. current level, data path, and stability of the response measure
C. data path, average level, and variability of the response measure
D. data path, trend, and variability of the response measure
Answer: D

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NO.2 If a client exhibits problem behaviors throughout the day and evenings regardless of what is
going on in the environment and what activities he/she is participating in, which would be the BEST
way to reduce the high frequency and increase latency?
A. Use a differential reinforcement procedure for the absence of problem behaviors for an amount
of time with a high magnitude reinforcer as a reward.
B. Use a high magnitude punishment procedure every time he/she exhibits the problem behavior.
C. Use a low magnitude punishment procedure every time he/she exhibits the problem behavior.
D. Use a fixed ratio reinforcer every time he/she exhibits appropriate behavior.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A reversal design does NOT permit an evaluation of an intervention for:
A. compliance.
B. reading acquisition.
C. self-injury.
D. stereotypy.
Answer: B

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NO.4 The systematic presentation and examination of information in an ABC format, where A
represents the antecedent stimuli, B represents the behavior, and C represents the consequences
following the behavior, is calleD.
A. a consequence analysis.
B. a functional analysis.
C. a response analysis.
D. a descriptive assessment.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Before recruitment of participants for a research study begins, a behavior analyst needs to:
A. obtain consent from participant(s) or legal guardian(s) if necessary.
B. obtain institutional review board approval or equivalent (e.g., an ethics committee).
C. inform participants of their ability to withdraw from the study.
D. inform participants about ethical requirements and experimental procedures.
Answer: B

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NO.6 In general, when a behavior analyst is asked to help someone make friends, the behavior
analyst shoulD.
A. avoid interfering in interpersonal relationships.
B. refer the person to a counselor, social worker, or other professional.
C. evaluate the current social repertoire.
D. set up a social skills training program.
Answer: C

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NO.7 When LeRoy sees his father arrive home, he begins to clean his room. Given this information,
we can conclude ONLY that the father's arrival is:
A. an antecedent.
B. a discriminative stimulus.
C. an establishing operation.
D. a visual prompt.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A person engages in target behaviors in environments different from the original training
environment. This is a demonstration of
A. stimulus generalization.
B. response generalization.
C. stimulus discrimination.
D. response induction.
Answer: A

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NO.1 You need to know where all the configuration files for the installed package named "postfix"
are located. Assuming it was installed with rpm, which command will list this information for you?
A. rpm -qc postfix
B. rpm -Vc postfix
C. rpm --config postfix
D. rpm -listconfig postfix
E. rpm -qa --config postfix
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are preparing a new set of shared libraries in /usr/local/applib and you have written and
compiled some code that uses these libraries. You have already performed and ldconfig, however
the system still cannot find the shared libraries. What is most likely the cause of this?A. You used
the wrong compiler.
B. You did not update your PATH variable.
C. You compiled the code with wrong library.
D. You forgot to put the library path in ld.so.conf
Answer: D

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NO.3 You have an updated RPM called screensaver-1.1.i386. rpm. You have version 1.0 installed.
Using RPM, how do you view the changelog of this file to see if you should install the update?
A. rpm -qp --changelog screensaver-1.1.i386. rpm
B. rpm --changelog screensaver-1.1.i386. rpm
C. rpm -qc screensaver-1.1.i386. rpm
D. rpm -showchangelog screensaver-1.1.i386. rpm
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are installing Linux on a workstation for a new employee. Which partition should be
largest?
A. /
B. /boot
C. /lib
D. /usr
Answer: D

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6. You are about to install a new program on an RPM based Linux system. Which of the following
would be the best way to accomplish this?
A. Get the source code in a tarball and install from that source.
B. Get a source RPM and use rpm to install it.
C. Use rpm to install the program's binaries from an RPM package.
D. Use cpi to extract the binaries from a source RPM and use rpm to install those sources.
Answer: C

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7. What tool can you use to print shared library dependencies?
A. ldconfig
B. ldd
C. libdep
D. libpath
E. ldev
Answer: B

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Explanation:
ldd command prints the shared libraries required by each program or shared library specified on the
command line. Example: ldd libdb.so.3 libc.so.6 => /lib/tls/libc.so.6 (0x00237000) /lib/ld-linux.so.2
(0x0021e000)
8. What program is needed to establish a PPP link to another computer?
A. pppd
B. wvdial
C. papd
D. kppp
Answer: A

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Explanation:
wvdial - PPP dialer with built-in intelligence. wvdial is an intelligent PPP dialer, which means that it
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program, except that it uses heuristics to guess how to dial and log into your server rather than
forcing you to write a login script.
9. You need to install a fax server. Which type of fax/modem should you install to insure Linux
compatibility?
A. External Serial Fax/modem
B. External USB Fax/modem
C. Internal ISA Fax/modem
D. Internal PCI Fax/modem
Answer: A

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10. You are running Linux 2.0.36 and you need to add a USB mouse to your system. Which of the
following statements is true?
A. You need to rebuild the kernel.
B. You need to upgrade the kernel.
C. You need to load the USB modules for your existing modular kernel.
D. USB support is no available in Linux.
Answer: B

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11. If Linux detects an ACPI BIOS on bootup, what does it automatically deactivate?
A. PnP
B. PCI
C. ATA
D. APM
Answer: D

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12. Where can lilo place boot code?
A. The boot ROM
B. The boot RAM
C. The /boot partition
D. The MBR on a hard drive
Answer: D

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13. The lspci command can display information about devices except the following:
A. Card bus speed (e.g. 66Mhz)
B. Card IRQ settings
C. Card vendor identification
D. Card AGP rate (e.g. 1x, 2x, 4x)
E. Card Ethernet MAC address
Answer: E

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Explanation:
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connected to them. To display the MAC address of Ethernet, we use the ifconfig command.
14. What command would help you identify the I/O address range being used by the network
card?
A. cat/proc/modules
B. cat/proc/devices
C. cat/proc/meminfo
D. cat/io/dma
E. cat/proc/ioports
Answer: E

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15. You have just upgraded your PC to a 60 gigabyte IDE drive. While partitioning the drive, you
notice that only 32 gigabytes are available. Which of the following will most likely allow you to use
the entire drive?
A. Create two smaller partitions of 30 gigabytes each.
B. Set the PC BIOS to use LBA mode.
C. Create a partition that resides entirely below the first 1024 cylinders.
D. Use GRUB or the latest version of LILO as a bootloader.
E. Upgrade the PC BIOS to the latest version available.
Answer: E

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16. While installing from source code you don't see the configuration script. What command can
you run to compile the code?
A. make configure
B. install
C. install makefile
D. make
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The purpose of the make utility is to determine automatically which pieces of a large program need
to be recompiled, and issue the commands to recompile them. example C programs, since they are
most common, but you can use make with any programming language whose compiler can be run
with a shell command. In fact, make is not limited to programs. You can use it to describe any task
where some files must be updated automatically from others whenever the others change. To
prepare to use make, you must write a file called the makefile that describes the relationships
among files in your program, and the states the commands for updating each file. In a
program,typically the executable file is updated from object files, which are in turn made by
compiling source files. So, make command compile the source code.

NO.5 How can you update a package only if an earlier version is currently installed on the system?
A. rmp -- update rpmname
B. rpm -U rpmname
C. rpm -F rpmname
D. rpm -- force rpmname
E. rpm -u rpmname
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Upgrades, but only if the package is currently installed.

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NO.1 Which of the following is not one of the advantages of self-managed teams?
A. Motivation is improved because decision making is decentralized.
B. Improved processes of production if the teams are supported properly.
C. Managerial acceptance by tradition-oriented managers.
D. Improved communication because all members understand the team's activities better.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Managerial resistance is often the primary obstacle of self-managed teams. Organizational change is
difficult and tradition-oriented managers tend to regard self-managed teams as a threat to their
status.

NO.2 Which of the following factors is least typical of an industry that faces intense competitive
rivalry?
A. Price-cutting.
B. Large advertising budgets.
C. Frequent introduction of new products.
D. A high threat of substitutes.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A high threat of substitutes reduces the attractiveness of an industry. It tends to increase the price
elasticity of demand and therefore limits price increases and profit margins. If other factors are
constant, fewer entrants result in less intense competition.

NO.3 Which of the following is false with regard to email policies?
A. Employees may use informal writing because email is often informal in nature.
B. Employees should understand that the organization has a legal right to monitor the employees'
use of the email system.
C. Filters should be used to protect against spam.
D. Emails should be concisely written.
Answer: A

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The principles of good writing still apply to emails. Therefore, emails should be written like any
other formal communication within the organization.

NO.4 Rivalry among existing firms in an industry is more likely to be strong when:
A. The industry is in the rapid growth stage.
B. Investment intensity is low.
C. A few firms are dominant.
D. Capacity must be expanded in large increments.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The intensity of rivalry and the threat of entry may vary with the extent of capacity expansion
dictated by the need to achieve economics of scale. If it must be made in large increments to
achieve economics of scale, competition will be more intense. The need for large-scale expansion to
achieve production efficiency may result in an excess of industry capacity over demand. However, if
capacity may be expanded in small increments, industry capacity is less likely to be excessive, the
supply-demand balance is less likely to be upset, and price cutting is less likely to be necessary.

NO.5 Many factors cause firms to overbuild, resulting in industry overcapacity. The structural
factor that may lead to overbuilding is:
A. A reduction in supplier prices.
B. A shallow learning curve.
C. An absence of exit barriers.
D. The presence of a strong market leader.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Suppliers of capital, equipment, materials, etc., face their own competitive pressures. Thus, lower
supplier prices, government subsidies, favorable interest rates, and similar incentives may promote
expansion by customer industries.

NO.6 Strategic management includes developing the organization's grand strategy. This strategy is
based on:
A. Existing strategic business units (SBUs).
B. A SWOT analysis.
C. Portfolio management of the organization's businesses.
D. Strategic planning.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Strategic management is a process that includes development of a grand strategy that describes
how the organization's mission is to be achieved. This strategy is based on a situational analysis that
considers organizational strengths and weaknesses (a capability profile) and their interactions with
environmental opportunities and threats. Such an evaluation is also called a SWOT analysis.
Strengths and weaknesses (the internal environment) are usually identified by considering the firm's
capabilities and resources. What the firm does particularly well or has in greater abundance are
known as core competencies. Opportunities and threats (the external environment) are identified
by considering macroenvironment factors (economic, demographic, political, legal, social, cultural,
and technical) and microenvironment factors (suppliers, customers, distributors, competitors, and
other competitive factors in the industry).

NO.7 The General Electric (GE) portfolio model for competitive analysis of strategic business units
(SBUs) should be compared with the Boston Consulting Croup's growth-share matrix. The GE model:
A. Is a matrix with two variables:relative market share and market growth rate.
B. Calculates an index for each of its two variables.
C. Considers such factors for business strength as market size, growth rate, and price levels.
D. Considers such factors for market attractiveness as market share, growth rate, and marketing
skills.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
The GE model is a multifactor portfolio matrix with two variables. Business strength or competitive
position (BUS) is on one axis, and market attractiveness (MAT) is on the other. BUS is classified as
strong, medium, or weak, and MAT is classified as high, medium, or low. Thus, the matrix in this
model is 3 x 3 and has nine cells. SBUs are shown in the matrix as circles. Circle size is directly
proportional to the size of the related market, with a shaded portion in the circle that represents
the SBU's market share. To measure BUS and MAT, the firm must isolate the multiple factors
affecting each, quantify them, and create an index. Factors will vary with each business. The
measurements will provide the values on the axes of the matrix.

NO.8 Which of the following is least likely to be an example of synergy?
A. A shopping mall with several businesses providing different products and performing different
services.
B. A car dealership providing warranties on automobile parts to maximize customer value.
C. A manufacturing company hiring a new manager with technological experience lacking in the
company.
D. Military Humvees being converted into sports utility vehicles for sale to civilians.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Synergy occurs when the combination of formerly separate elements has a greater effect than the
sum of their individual effects.
However, a car dealership's provision of warranties reflects anoperational strategy designed to
provide post-purchase services to gain a competitive advantage and maximize customer value. It
does not reflect the complementary sharing of resources, technology, or competencies. In contrast,
synergy arises from selling a line of carsthat share some components or abrand identification.

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NO.1 Your cluster implements HDFS High Availability (HA). Your two NameNodes are named nn01
and nn02. What occurs when you execute the command: hdfs haadmin -failover nn01 nn02
A. nn02 becomes the standby NameNode and nn01 becomes the active NameNode
B. nn02 is fenced, and nn01 becomes the active NameNode
C. nn01 becomes the standby NamNode and nn02 becomes the active NAmeNode
D. nn01 is fenced, and nn02 becomes the active NameNode
Answer: D

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failover - initiate a failover between two NameNodes This subcommand causes a failover from the
first provided NameNode to the second. If the first NameNode is in the Standby state, this
command simply transitions the second to the Active state without error. If the first NameNode is in
the Active state, an attempt will be made to gracefully transition it to the Standby state. If this fails,
the fencing methods (as configured by dfs.ha.fencing.methods) will be attempted in order until one
of the methods succeeds. Only after this process will the second NameNode be transitioned to the
Active state. If no fencing method succeeds, the second NameNode will not be transitioned to the
Active state, and an error will be returned.

NO.2 A slave node in your cluster has four 2TB hard drives installed (4 x 2TB). The DataNode is
configured to store HDFS blocks on the disks. You set the value of the dfs.datanode.du.reserved
parameter to 100GB. How does this alter HDFS block storage?
A. A maximum of 100 GB on each hard drive may be used to store HDFS blocks
B. All hard drives may be used to store HDFS blocks as long as atleast 100 GB in total is available on
the node
C. 100 GB on each hard drive may not be used to store HDFS blocks
D. 25 GB on each hard drive may not be used to store HDFS blocks
Answer: B

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NO.3 You decide to create a cluster which runs HDFS in High Availability mode with automatic
failover, using Quorum-based Storage. What is the purpose of ZooKeeper in such a configuration?
A. It manages the Edits file, which is a log changes to the HDFS filesystem.
B. It monitors an NFS mount point and reports if the mount point disappears
C. It both keeps track of which NameNode is Active at any given time, and manages the Edits file,
which is a log of changes to the HDFS filesystem
D. It only keeps track of which NameNode is Active at any given time
E. Clients connect toZoneKeeper to determine which NameNode is Active
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www.cloudera.com/content/cloudera-content/clouderadocs/CDH4 /latest/PDF/CD
H4-High-Availability-Guide.pdf(page 15)

NO.4 You suspect that your NameNode is incorrectly configured, and is swapping memory to disk.
Which Linux commands help you to identify whether swapping is occurring?
A. free
B. df
C. memcat
D. top
E. vmstat
F. swapinfo
Answer: C

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NO.5 Your cluster's mapped-site.xml includes the following parameters
<name>mapreduce.map.memory.mb</name> <value>4096<value/>
<name>mapreduce.reduce.memory,mb</name> <value>8192</value>
And your cluster's yarn-site.xml includes the following parameters
<name>yarn.nodemanager/vmen-pmem-ratio</name> <value>2.1</value>
What is the maximum amount of virtual memory allocated for each map before YARN will kill its
Container?
A. 4 GB
B. 17.2 GB
C. 24.6 GB
D. 8.2 GB
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which Yarn daemon or service monitors a Container's per-application resource usage (e.g,
memory, CPU)?
A. NodeManager
B. ApplicationMaster
C. ApplicationManagerService
D. ResourceManager
Answer: A

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Reference:http://docs.hortonworks.com/HDPDocuments/HDP2 /HDP-2.0.0.2 /bk_usingapache-hadoo
p/content/ch_using-apache-hadoop-4.html(4th para)

NO.7 Your Hadoop cluster is configured with HDFS and MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN. Can
you configure a worker node to run aNodeManager daemon but not a DataNode daemon and still
have a function cluster?
A. Yes. The daemon will receive data from the NameNode to run Map tasks
B. Yes. The daemon will get data from another (non-local) DataNode to run Map tasks
C. Yes. The daemon will receive Reduce tasks only
Answer: A

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factor of 3). One of the nodes holding this file (a single block) fails. How will the cluster handle the
replication of this file in this situation/
A. The cluster will re-replicate the file the next time the system administrator reboots the
NameNode daemon (as long as the file's replication doesn't fall two)
B. This file will be immediately re-replicated and all other HDFS operations on the cluster will halt
until the cluster's replication values are restored
C. The file will remain under-replicated until the administrator brings that nodes back online
D. The file will be re-replicated automatically after the NameNode determines it is under replicated
based on the block reports it receives from the DataNodes
Answer: B

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NO.1 Upon completion of a purchase using Google Play in-app billing, the result is returned to your
activity.
Which method you should override to handle the returned result?
A. onActivityResult.
B. onResultReturned.
C. onPurchaseFinished.
D. OnIabPurchaseFinished
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following type of accounts is required to upload paid applications on Google Play?
A. Google Wallet Merchant Account.
B. Google Wallet Account.
C. Wallet Merchant Account.
D. Google Wallet Payment Account.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is NOT true about the products sold from inside the application?
A. Products sold inside an application are digital items that are offered for sale by the developer.
B. They are non-refundable
C. Digital items cannot be sold using Google Play's IAB service.
D. Products are programmatically delivered by the developer and not Google Play.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following are required to publish your Android application on Google Play?
(Choose two)
A. A Google publisher account.
B. A Google Wallet merchant account.
C. The APK file of your application.
D. An adMob account.
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which of the following happens after an in-app purchase is completed?
A. User is provided with a list of similar products in Google Play.
B. The application is closed and a sale confirmation message is sent to user.
C. The application runs from the same place it was left.
D. User is asked to provide an application review on Google Play.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is true about the stthe ate of the running application when user starts
buying product using in-app billing technique?
A. The running application from is stopped.
B. The running application gets destroyed.
C. The running application is paused.
D. Running application is not affected, as the buying is done through the Google play's live service. It
just requires the key that the user has generated against the application.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is ad mediation?
A. The name of an advertisement platform.
B. A technique to create an advertisement using the application's description.
C. A technique that sends ad requests to multiple ad networks.
D. A method to choose the best ad placement size in an application.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which one of these methods makes the ADT emulator a testing device? Note that "request" is
an instance of class AdRequest.
A. request.addTestDevice(AdRequest.TEST_DEVICE);
B. request.addDevice(AdRequest.TEST_EMULATOR);
C. request.addTestDevice(AdRequest.TEST_EMULATOR);
D. request.makeTestRequest();
Answer: C

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