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Exam Code: P6040-014
Exam Name: IBM SurePOS 500 Models 5x5 Technical Mastery
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Exam Code: C2170-008
Exam Name: IBM Curam V6 Development
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Exam Code: P2090-046
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NO.1 Which of the following statements about InfoSphere Data Architect is correct?
A. You CANNOT create a logical model from a physical model
B. InfoSphere Data Architect can deploy physical data models directly to the database management
system
C. Reverse engineering data models only works for DB2 databases
D. InfoSphere Data Architect is installed using the Information Server installation wizard
Answer: B

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NO.2 In DataStage, which client can be used to set environment variables at project level?
A. DataStage Designer
B. DataStage Administrator
C. DataStage Director
D. Information Server Web Console
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following statements about Collecting methods is correct?
A. ROUND ROBIN is the fastest algorithm
B. SORT MERGE never performs data sorting
C. ORDERED ensures the collected data stream being sorted
D. AUTO chooses the best method between ROUND ROBIN, SORT MERGE, and ORDERED
Answer: B

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NO.4 With DataStage Designer you CANNOT __________.
A. Design jobs that extract, integrate, and transform the data for data warehouse
B. Create and reuse Table Definitions
C. Compile and execute the DataStage jobs
D. Configure the deployment model
Answer: D

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NO.5 In DataStage, Table Definitions can be imported through __________.
A. DataStage Administrator
B. Information Server Web Console
C. DataStage Designer
D. DataStage Director
Answer: C

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NO.6 Where are Table Definitions stored?
A. Information Server metadata repository
B. In the file system as a binary file
C. In the file system as a csv file
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which tool below can be used to assign permissions to users for each DataStage project?
A. Information Server Web Console
B. DataStage Administrator
C. DataStage Director
D. DataStage Designer
Answer: B

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NO.8 In which situation below can you use the Metadata Asset Manager with the MetaBrokers and
Bridges (Import/Export Manager) to import metadata into the Metadata Repository?
A. To bring runtime information about DataStage jobs into the Metadata Repository
B. To bring FastTrack mapping specifications into the Metadata Repository
C. To bring Cognos BI reports and queries into the Metadata Repository
D. To bring a blueprint from Blueprint Director into the Metadata Repository
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Exam Code: A2040-403
Exam Name: IBM Forms 8.0 - Form Design and Development
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Exam Code: C2090-731
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NO.1 What is the default namespace prefix for an IBM Form?
A. xmlns:xforms
B. xmlns:default
C. xmlns:custom
D. xmlns:xfdl
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the statements below describes a benefit of XFDL?
A. XFDL simplifies HTML programming.
B. XFDL makes pre-populating form data easier because of its code level engine.
C. XFDL future-proofs electronic forms as they are in human-readable XML.
D. XFDL documents can be rendered by any word processing software.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following is the best practice to set a IBM Forms data element as read only?
A. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" readonly="true()"/>
B. <field sid="birthdate"><readonly>on</readonly></field>
C. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" readonly="true"/>
D. <xforms:bind nodeset="birthdate" properties="readonly"/>
Answer: A

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NO.4 Where can spell checking for the Designer be enabled or disabled?
A. In the Spell Check section of the Forms Designer heading in the Preferences.
B. On the file system, by removing or replacing the dictionary files in the Designer's install folder.
C. In the global form properties dialog.
D. From the Preferences dialog opened from the Viewer's toolbar.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement below best describes XFDL functions?
A. XFDL functions provide a way to perform complex calculations.
B. XFDL functions can be extended via User-Defined functions.
C. XFDL functions provide out-of-the-box functionality via two packages: viewer and system.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.6 How is an XForms submission handled by the Translator Server?
A. The Client's Browser sends the XForms submission as XML directly to the submission URL.
B. The Client's Browser sends the XForms submission as HTML directly to the submission URL.
C. The Translator Server sends the XForms submission as XML directly to the submission URL.
D. The Translator Server sends the XForms submission as HTML directly to the submission URL.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A developer is working in IBM Forms Designer using the Standard IBM Forms perspective.
Which
of the following statements is TRUE?
A. XForms model information is always generated automatically in the background.
B. The form cannot contain an XForms model.
C. The developer should switch to the Advanced perspective to add an XForms data model.
D. XForms model information is generated automatically unless the developer indicated the form
should not contain a data model.
Answer: D

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NO.8 When creating a field that can change its height based on the amount of data it contains,
which of
the following should occur?
A. The field should also be able to change width dynamically.
B. Items that appear below the field on the page should come after it in the build order.
C. Items that appear below the field should be relatively positioned so that they move up or down
as the field changes size.
D. Items that appear below the field on the page should come after it in the build order, and should
be relativelypositioned so that they move upor down as the field changes size.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C2010-652
Exam Name: IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5 Fundamentals
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NO.1 What is the IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5 (SCCD) application server used for?
A. To apply SCCD fix packs
B. To generate SCCD EAR files
C. To provide a SCCD runtime environment
D. To customize Maximo Business Object Java code
Answer: C

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NO.2 What functionality will a user need to define a set of tasks that will be applied to the Service
Request once the Catalog Request is submitted and approved?
A. Job Plan
B. Fulfillment Plan
C. Ticket Template
D. Fulfillment Template
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are two appropriate Key Performance Indicators for the Service Catalog Management
Process? (Choose two.)
A. Number of accesses per month
B. Number of calls to the service desk
C. Percent of users who use the service catalog
D. Percent of users who are aware of the service catalog
E. Number of services published including Service Level Agreements/Targets
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 When installing an enterprise solution, which edition of IBM SmartCloud Control Desk can be
installed?
A. Only Entry Edition
B. Any product edition
C. Only Everyplace Edition
D. Only Service Provider Edition
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two activities are included in the scope of IT Asset management? (Choose two.)
A. Risk Management
B. License Management
C. Security Management
D. Inventory Management
E. Configuration Management
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 What are three types of IBM SmartCloud Control Desk offerings? (Choose three.)
A. Action
B. Descriptive
C. Work Order
D. Work Request
E. Service Catalog
F. Service Request
Answer: A,B,F

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NO.7 What is the purpose of domains within IBM SmartCloud Control Desk?
A. To allow global searches across areas of an organization
B. To specify ownership of a set of objects within the product
C. To separate configuration items and assets into geographical areas
D. To maintain a value list that can be used in fields within the product
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the purpose of the Promotion process?
A. To create configuration items (CI) from Actual CIs
B. To create Actual CIs from CIs
C. To enable CIs to be used in the Change Management process
D. To enable Actual CIs to be used in the Change Management process
Answer: A

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Exam Code: A2010-939
Exam Name: Assess: IBM Tivoli Change and Configuration Manager Database V7.1.1
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NO.1 Which two statements are true about the Common Data Model. (Choose two.)
A.The Common Data Model is based on LDAP.
B.The Discovery Library XML Schema is called IML.
C.The Discovery Library XML Schema is called IdML.
D.The Discovery Library Adapters use SOAP to interface with the Common Data Model.
E.Discovery Library Adapters enable the import and export of data according to the Common
Data Model.
Answer: CE

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NO.2 Which statement is true about TADDM and CCMDB?
A.CCMDB is a required component of TADDM.
B.TADDM is a required component of CCMDB.
C.TADDM and CCMDB must be installed on the same system.
D.CCMDB serves as a discovery tool, while TADDM serves as a data repository.
Answer: B

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NO.3 When should existing middleware be reused?
A.when reusing existing access policies
B.when a quick CCMDB deployment is top priority
C.when security policies prevent administrator access to new hardware
D.when security policies prevent the creation of a new database or application server
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the application that contains the impact analysis feature in CCMDB?
A.Work Management
B.Change Management
C.Problem Management
D.Workflow Management
Answer: B

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NO.5 Given that the customer's IT environment has been verified, which two prerequisite
steps need to be
taken to ensure that CCMDB requirements have been met? (Choose two.)
A.examine the DBMS to be utilized for meeting requirements
B.examine the platform (OS) for the DB server for meeting requirements
C.examine the LDAP interface with the Common Data Model for meeting requirements
D.examine the SOAP interface with the Common Data Model for meeting requirements
E.examine the communication between the authentication client and the authentication
server for meeting
requirements
Answer: AB

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NO.6 Which statement is true regarding process managers?
A.Each is a customized version of its Tivoli process automation engine.
B.All process managers run through the Tivoli process automation engine.
C.Each process manager must install its own Tivoli process automation engines for CCMDB.
D.All process managers are run only by the Tivoli process automation engine's administrator.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Given that the customer's IT environment has been verified, which two prerequisite
steps need to be
taken to ensure that CCMDB requirements have been met? (Choose two.)
A.examine the OS platform for the TADDM server for meeting requirements
B.examine the LDAP interface with the Common Data Model for meeting requirements
C.examine the SOAP interface with the Common Data Model for meeting requirements
D.examine the hardware specifications for the Windows Administrative console for meeting
requirements
E.examine the communication between the authentication client and the authentication
server for meeting
requirements
Answer: AD

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NO.8 One of the tasks that must be performed to install CCMDB is to analyze the roles and
responsibilities
of individuals in the project.
Which step must be performed to create a document to map the activities and tasks to
specific roles in a
CCMDB deployment?
A.define the level of effort for each task
B.define the roles involved in the process
C.define the tasks that will be performed during the project
D.create a Project Plan to outline what steps will be performed
Answer: B

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NO.1 You can use the HUAWEI OceanStor Toolkit to perform the operations such as preventive
maintenance, information collection, and upgrade for the HUAWEI OceanStor 9000.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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NO.2 When configuring file systems for the N8500 clustered NAS storage systems, you are advised
to configure a file system size not larger than 32 TB and the size of small-file storage applications
not larger than 16 TB to achieve satisfactory reliability and data recovery speed. (The small files
here refer to the files with an average size of 1 MB.)
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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NO.3 The HUAWEI OceanStor 9000 can be managed using web browsers. If an OceanStor 9000
storage system uses default settings, which of the following entered in the browser address box is
correct?
A. https://IP:httpsport/webui
B. http://IP:httpsport/tools
C. http://IP:httpsport
D. https;//IP:httpsport
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following statements about N8500 troubleshooting is incorrect?
A. Check file system configurations, and then check storage device configurations.
B. Check network connection, and then check NAS device configurations.
C. Check device indicators, and then check system logs.
D. Check the status of storage unit disk enclosures, and then check the status of storage unit
controller enclosures.
Answer: D

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NO.5 The flexible space of the OceanStor 9000 is attributed to the scale-out architecture, scalability
from 3 to 288 nodes, and support for global namespace.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which command is used to monitor the CPU usage in performance optimization of the
N8500 clustered NAS storage systems?
A. sar -u 3 3
B. sar -r 3 3
C. sar -n DEV 2 2
D. sar -n CPU 2 2
Answer: A

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NO.7 When configuring an N8500 clustered NAS engine, a user must specify the start and end
physical IP addresses and the start and end virtual IP addresses,
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following statements about the VCS services and resources provided by a
clustered NAS system are correct? (Select 3 answers)
A. A dependency relationship between service groups can be defined.
B. A dependency relationship between resources can be defined,
C. Each resource corresponds to one agent.
D. Resource dependency relationships can be defined in a cyclic manner.
Answer: A,B,C

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Exam Code: HC-621
Exam Name: HCNP-SSAM(SAN Storage Advanced Management)
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Exam Code: H11-851
Exam Name: HCNA-VC (Video Conference)
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Exam Code: H12-721
Exam Name: HCNP-Security-CISN (Huawei Certified Network Professional - Constructing Infrastructure of Security Network)
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NO.1 Installing the AIX platform, multi- path, multi- path need to see the priority attribute, you can
use the which command?
A. cfgmgr
B. upadm show path
C. lspv
D. lspath
Answer: D

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NO.2 With the same specifications, the number of hard drives in the RAID group established in
reading and writing in the same business, Raid10 random write performance and Raid5 random
write performance is roughly equal.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.3 For common maintenance tool storage array, the error is described below.
A. Information gathering tool with a graphical interface operation,cross- operating
system,multilanguage switching,free installation features
B. Upgrade Checker.a check items automatically determine and reduce risk, lower skill requirements
characteristics
C. Business management functions can be achieved visually displays the current connection status
topology
D. DHA Service management is a hard disk health data collection / performance data storage,
support for start and stop, set,export, return
Answer: C

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NO.4 Remote replication between storage arrays are based on file-level replication.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.5 If the LUN on the storage array to create a virtual snapshot of the data in case the source LUN
is not to remove, what methods can be used to recover the data? (Choose two)
A. Source LUN snapshot rollback operation
B. The snapshot of the source LUN LUN mapping to the host,the host side to recover
C. Source LUN snapshot activate operation activation
D. The snapshot source LUN mirroring operation
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 S5000 full amount LUN copy must interrupt the host for the S5000 source LUN data read and
write operations.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.7 Snapshot of the storage array, LUN copy and remote replication, the following statement is
correct. (Choose two)
A. You can do both on a LUN snapshot and replication do
B. A remote copy of the source LUN can be used as another remote replication target LUN
C. A remote copy can be used as another source LUN LUN LUN copy source
D. Cannotdo both on a LUN snapshot and do remote replication
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 For solaris systems, the following statement is correct about the STMS. (Choose three)
A. solaris10 system comes stms package,no additional installation
B. Will require the use of a command function is enabled stms restart the host port
C. stmsboot managing multi- path characteristics solaris management program
D. Ultrapath can be installed on solaris multipath software to support multi -pathing
Answer: A,B,C

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Exam Code: BCABA
Exam Name: Board Certified Assistant Behavior Analyst
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NO.1 What does this graph depict?
A. current level and data path of the response measure
B. current level, data path, and stability of the response measure
C. data path, average level, and variability of the response measure
D. data path, trend, and variability of the response measure
Answer: D

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NO.2 If a client exhibits problem behaviors throughout the day and evenings regardless of what is
going on in the environment and what activities he/she is participating in, which would be the BEST
way to reduce the high frequency and increase latency?
A. Use a differential reinforcement procedure for the absence of problem behaviors for an amount
of time with a high magnitude reinforcer as a reward.
B. Use a high magnitude punishment procedure every time he/she exhibits the problem behavior.
C. Use a low magnitude punishment procedure every time he/she exhibits the problem behavior.
D. Use a fixed ratio reinforcer every time he/she exhibits appropriate behavior.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A reversal design does NOT permit an evaluation of an intervention for:
A. compliance.
B. reading acquisition.
C. self-injury.
D. stereotypy.
Answer: B

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NO.4 The systematic presentation and examination of information in an ABC format, where A
represents the antecedent stimuli, B represents the behavior, and C represents the consequences
following the behavior, is calleD.
A. a consequence analysis.
B. a functional analysis.
C. a response analysis.
D. a descriptive assessment.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Before recruitment of participants for a research study begins, a behavior analyst needs to:
A. obtain consent from participant(s) or legal guardian(s) if necessary.
B. obtain institutional review board approval or equivalent (e.g., an ethics committee).
C. inform participants of their ability to withdraw from the study.
D. inform participants about ethical requirements and experimental procedures.
Answer: B

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NO.6 In general, when a behavior analyst is asked to help someone make friends, the behavior
analyst shoulD.
A. avoid interfering in interpersonal relationships.
B. refer the person to a counselor, social worker, or other professional.
C. evaluate the current social repertoire.
D. set up a social skills training program.
Answer: C

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NO.7 When LeRoy sees his father arrive home, he begins to clean his room. Given this information,
we can conclude ONLY that the father's arrival is:
A. an antecedent.
B. a discriminative stimulus.
C. an establishing operation.
D. a visual prompt.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A person engages in target behaviors in environments different from the original training
environment. This is a demonstration of
A. stimulus generalization.
B. response generalization.
C. stimulus discrimination.
D. response induction.
Answer: A

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