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Exam Code: CMQ-OE
Exam Name: Certified Manager of Quality/Organizational Excellence Exam
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NO.1 A work team has identified three software packages that will help them dramatically improve
a process and needs to decide which to purchase. Each package has some of the same and some
different features and there are many different criteria that need to be used in making the decision.
Which of the following tools is likely to be most valuable for helping the team decide?
A. Priorities matrix
B. Tree diagram
C. Matrix diagram
D. Activity network diagram
Answer: A

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NO.2 A small chain of five retail stores has just completed its initial strategic planning and wishes to
determine the effectiveness of its plans for the first year. They should track and measure:
A. Results from action plans.
B. Frequency of application of the quality policy.
C. Attainment of the strategic objectives.
D. Organization goals.
Answer: C

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NO.3 This individual may be perceived as a leader by his or her subordinates, peers and bosses for
exhibiting one or more of these qualities:
1.Knowledge
2.Skills
3.Experience
4.Charisma
5.Action
6.Convincing speech
7.Empathy
8.Ethics
9.Empowerment
10.Collaboration
11.Support
Who is this?
A. Cause leader
B. Organization leader
C. Opinion leader
D. Public leader
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following best describes the differences between crossfunctional and matrix
organizations?
A. Cross-functionals deal with companywide issues, whereas matrices focus on specific projects.
B. Cross-functionals are often temporary, whereas matrices are permanent.
C. Cross-functionals deal with internal groups, whereas matrices deal with external groups.
D. Cross-functionals usually consist of personnel with technical skills, whereas matrices usually
consist of high-level functional executives.
Answer: A

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NO.5 An external risk factor that might need to be considered when conducting project planning is:
A. Lack of resources.
B. Regulatory requirements.
C. Organizational rules.
D. Technological capabilities.
Answer: B

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NO.6 In a typical organization, there are many different strategies and people put their focus where
it seems best placed, but this may not agree with what is actually expected or desired. A possible
solution for such a situation is:
A. To ensure the strategic and operational plans clearly indicate the priorities and strategies for the
organization
B. To communicate, communicate, and communicate!
C. To ensure that authority levels are clearly spelled out for typical situations
D. To have employees go outside the organizational walls
Answer: B

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NO.7 Of the following core values and concepts, which would be the most critical to apply to a
newly mandated state emergency management agency?
I. Visionary leadership
II. Customer-driven excellence
III. Agility
IV. Focus on the future
V. Focus on results and creating value
VI. Management by fact
VII. Managing for innovation
A.I, III, V, VII
B.II, V, VI
C.I, III, IV, V, VI, VII
D.V, VI
Answer: C

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NO.8 A facilitator notices that the team jumps to conclusions after only one or two members have
stated their opinion.
The facilitator should:
A. Tell the team to have a nonbinding vote before beginning a discussion, which will make each
person's view apparent.
B. Ask the team to fill out a questionnaire rating themselves on effective group process.
C. Tell the quiet members they need to speak out.
D. Ask what the impact will be on the team if they don't adequately discuss issues.
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Aruba Certified Mobility Professional 6.3
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NO.1 Which command, when executed on a master controller, will show the APs connected to all
controllers?
A. show stm connectivity
B. show ap active
C. show ap database
D. show ap bss-table
E. show ap controller-lms
Answer: C

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NO.2 How many Aruba controllers can be added to a single mobility domain?
A. 64 controllers of any type
B. 128 controllers supporting 2000 users
C. 256 controllers with no more than 1024 subnets
D. Controllers supporting up to 6000 AP's
E. There is no controller limit
Answer: E

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NO.3 An AP was configured and assigned to an AP group then powered off for over a week. When
the AP is redeployed, what previous configuration will it retain?
A. It's AP name and AP Group
B. It's Serial Number
C. The controller's IP address
D. After a few days all configurations are lost
E. The controller IP address and the AP Group
Answer: A

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NO.4 If a Remote AP (RAP) is attempting to contact a controller that is behind a NAT device what
protocol must be allowed through the NAT/Firewall?
A. PAPI
B. NATT
C. IPSec
D. SSH
E. GRE
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the statements below are TRUE regarding ARM's Spectrum Load Balancing feature?
(Choose two)
A. Available only on 5GHz radios
B. Disabled by default
C. Balances client load across available channels/APs
D. Enabled by default
E. Available only on 2.4GHz radios
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 Which command will show all client association history?
A. Aruba-6000# show mobile trail current (ip address)
B. Aruba-6000# show ip mobile trail (ip address)
C. Aruba-6000# show ap client status (mac address)
D. Aruba-6000# show current client ip (ip address)
E. Aruba-6000# show client ip (ip address) mobility
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following statements is true of Spectrum Mode?
A. No licenses are required to run an AP in Spectrum mode
B. Spectrum mode can only be configured for one AP at a time
C. An AP can be in spectrum mode for both 2.4 and 5G bands at the same time
D. An AP can be placed in Spectrum Mode via the Spectrum Profile
E. Spectrum mode can be configured from the GUI under AP installation
Answer: C

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NO.8 When configuring ports in the Controller wizard, which of the following are NOT configuration
options? (Choose two)
A. Inter-VLAN routing
B. Speed
C. Trusted
D. LACP
E. Trunk
Answer: A,D

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NO.1 Whitewater appliance peer replication is supported in which of the following modes? (Select 2)
A. Single active/single passive (cloud only).
B. Single active/single passive (secondary Whitewater appliance only).
C. Single active/dual passive (cloud and secondary Whitewater appliance).
D. Single active/dual active (cloud and secondary Whitewater appliance in high availability mode).
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Granite technology has built-in file awareness for which file systems? (Select 2)
A. NTFS
B. VMDK
C. VMFS
D. FAT32
E. EXT3
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 What information is needed to configure a Granite Edge in the Granite Core?
A. Granite Edge Identifier.
B. IP address of the Granite Edge.
C. Primary IP address of the Granite Edge.
D. Granite Edge IQN (iSCSI Qualified Name).
E. In-path IP address of Granite Edge.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which three cloud providers are currently supported with Whitewater appliances? (Select 3)
A. IBM SmartCloud.
B. Microsoft Windows Azure.
C. Amazon Glacier.
D. Cloudian.
E. Rackspace.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.5 A customer is looking to deploy Steelhead EX 1160-L's to 10 branches. Each branch is to have a
file server with 2TB of storage. What data set size does the Granite Core appliance need to be
capable of handling, assuming standard Granite Edge appliance blockstore sizing recommendations?
(Each 1160 has been configured with 275 GB/ 275 GB VSP/Blockstore setting)
A. 20 TB
B. 10 TB
C. 4 TB
D. 2.75 TB
E. 2 TB
Answer: D

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NO.6 What two components are required to form an iSCSI connection? (Select 2)
A. An iSCSI initiator.
B. An iSCSI source.
C. An iSCSI client.
D. An iSCSI server.
E. An iSCSI destination.
F. An iSCSI target.
Answer: A,F

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NO.7 An environment has 5TB of file server data and 5TB of database data backed up with a full
backup each week. Assume the average dedupe rates for Whitewater, and assume standard 1%
change and 10% annual growth rate. With a requirement to keep a minimum of two weeks
ofbackups locally on the Whitewater cache, which Whitewater appliances would satisfy the
requirements above? (Select 2)
A. Virtual Whitewater appliance 210.
B. Virtual Whitewater appliance 410.
C. Whitewater appliance 730.
D. Whitewater appliance 2030.
E. Whitewater appliance 3030.
Answer: D,E

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NO.8 Which mechanisms can cause Whitewater appliance replication to pause or effect the
optimization service? (Select 4)
A. Cloud provider outage.
B. Backup application crash.
C. WAN outage.
D. Whitewater bandwidth settings.
E. Incorrect cloud provider credentials.
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.1 What is the name of the Blackberry desktop client for BlackBerry 10 (BB10)?
A. Device Manager
B. WebDesktop
C. BlackBerry Link
D. BlackBerry Desktop Manager for BB10
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are the two perimeters set when a smartphone/Tablet is activated on a BlackBerry
Device Service (BDS)?
A. Enterprise and Home
B. Work and Personal
C. Server and Personal
D. Work and Home
Answer: B

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NO.3 How can a user tell if a read-only Wi-Fi profile has been pushed to the BlackBerry Smartphone
using the BlackBerry Device Service (BDS)?
A. The Wi-Fi profile will have a lock icon next to it.
B. The Wi-Fi profile will have a briefcase icon next to it.
C. There is no way for a user to tell which profiles have been pushed.
D. The Wi-Fi profile cannot be deleted, and all fields are greyed out and cannot be edited.
Answer: D

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NO.4 All users are no longer able to activate using their Username. Activation Password and SRP .
However they are able to use a Fully Qualified Domain Name of the BlackBerry Device Service (BDS).
What setting in BlackBerry Administration Service (BAS) would be the most likely cause of this issue?
A. BlackBerry Dispatcher is configured with an Enterprise Proxy
B. Allow activation over BlackBerry infrastructure set to yes
C. Allow activation information to be emailed is set to no
D. Proxy profile is configured to use VPN incorrectly
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following is an essential aid to investigate a problem experienced on a BlackBerry
10 (BB10) smartphone when being reported to BlackBerry?
A. Playbook
B. BlackBerry Device Service (BDS) server name
C. The location of the device
D. The time of occurrence and the device logs
Answer: D

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NO.6 Where are notifications that an application has finished downloading from BlackBerry World
enabled?
A. Settings > Notifications > Other Applications > BlackBerry World > Download Notifications
B. Settings > Notifications > BlackBerry World > Download Notifications
C. BlackBerry World > Settings > General Settings > Download Notifications
D. BlackBerry World > Settings > Notifications > Download Notifications
Answer: C

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NO.7 By Default, how many devices can a single user activate to one given account?
A. One
B. Two
C. Five
D. Ten
Answer: D

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NO.8 Performing a Security Wipe will delete which of the following?
A. All PIM information, pictures or videos but not downloaded applications
B. All data on the device including any pictures or videos, and downloaded applications
C. All data from the work perimeter
D. If work perimeter does not exist then all data but not downloaded applications
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which of the following scheduling types can only be used in capacity planning?
A. Midpoint
B. Forward
C. Only capacity requirements
D. Backward
Answer: A

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NO.2 You want to enhance the system statuses of a production order with user statuses.
How do you do this?
A. Define the user statuses in the order type-dependent parameters.
B. Define a status profile in Customizing and assign it to the production scheduling profile.
C. Define a status profile in Customizing and assign it to the order type.
D. Define the user statuses in the Customizing table of the system statuses.
Answer: C

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NO.3 The final assembly of a finished product should only be triggered when a customer order
arrives.
Which planning strategy for the finished product do you use?
A. Planning with make-to-stock (strategy 10)
B. Planning at the assembly level (strategy 70)
C. Planning without final assembly (strategy 50)
D. Planning with final assembly (strategy 40)
Answer: C

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NO.4 You want to use the function "Read PP master data" in the production order.
However, while calling the function you receive an error message.
What could be the reason?
A. The material availability check has been performed.
B. Goods movements have been posted.
C. The production order has been released.
D. Order papers have been printed.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which activity can trigger an automatic availability check for the components of a production
order?
A. Material staging
B. Order rescheduling
C. Order release
D. Goods receipt for a missing part
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which objects can affect the calculation of capacity requirements for an operation?(Choose
three)
A. Standard values (routing)
B. In-house production time (material master)
C. Transport time (routing)
D. Formulas (work center)
E. Operation control key (routing)
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.7 In the Customizing for requirements planning, a project team notices that the alternatives P1,
P2, P3 and P4 are also delivered as standard in addition to MRP type PD. The number in each of
these alternatives represents a firming type.
What does a firming type define?(Choose two)
A. Handling existing procurement proposals outside the planning time fence.
B. Handling existing procurement proposals within a planning time fence.
C. Handling new requirements within the planning time fence.
D. Handling new procurement proposals that need to be created due to new requirements within
the planning time fence.
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Which types of objects can be changed with Engineering Change Management (ECM)?(Choose
three)
A. Task list
B. Work center
C. Production version
D. Bill of material
E. Material master
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.1 In a vendor master record, you enter a different vendor as a partner with the partner role
(partner function) of Invoicing Party.
What is the function of this partner role in Materials Management?
A. This partner automatically receives copies of all messages relating to purchasing documents.
B. This partner is proposed when you enter an invoice with reference to purchase orders.
C. All unplanned delivery costs with reference to purchase orders are billed to this partner.
D. Return deliveries with reference to purchase orders must be sent to this partner.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which procurement elements can be created in Purchasing with automatic purchase order
generation?(Choose two)
A. Requests for quotation (RFQ)
B. Contract release orders
C. Purchase orders
D. Delivery schedules
Answer: B,C

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6. Which value of the creation indicator is shown in the tab Contact person when you create a
purchase requisition manually?
A. Production Order
B. Direct procurement
C. Realtime
D. Material requirements planning
Answer: C

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7. Where do you define a fixed vendor for a specific period in time?
A. In the info record at client level (regular vendor)
B. In the quota arrangement at plant level
C. In the source list at plant level
D. In the material master at plant level
Answer: C

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8. What are characteristics of material valuation at the moving average price?(Choose two)
A. If you book a subsequent debit for a quantity higher than the total quantity of valuated stock
then a price difference posting is generated.
B. If the price in the purchase order is different from the moving average price then a price
difference posting is generated at goods receipt.
C. The moving average price is equal to the total value divided by total quantity of valuated stock.
D. Goods movements are always valuated based on the moving average price from the material
master record.
Answer: A,C

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9. You have received an order confirmation from a vendor.
What do you have to do before you can enter the confirmed delivery date and confirmed quantity in
a purchase order item?
A. Set the Goods Receipt indicator.
B. Set the Confirmation Received indicator in the header.
C. Use a confirmation control key in the relevant purchase order item.
D. Set the Acknowledgement Required indicator in the vendor master of the relevant vendor.
Answer: C

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10. What does an account group control when you create vendor master records?(Choose three)
A. The partner determination procedure
B. The definition whether the vendor master record is a one-time account or not
C. The possible data retention levels
D. The reconciliation account in general ledger
E. The possible payment terms
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 What can you define for a movement type in Customizing?(Choose three)
A. The movement type short text and the reasons for movement
B. The indicator for automatic creation of storage location data in the material master record at the
time of the first goods receipt
C. The number range for material documents that are generated when postings are made with the
movement type
D. The quantity and value updates for postings with the movement type
E. The account modification for transactions and events with active account grouping in the table of
account keys
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.4 Which of the following are SAP Solution Manager usage scenarios?(Choose two)
A. Legacy system data mapping
B. Implementation of SAP solutions
C. User productivity monitoring
D. Service desk
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Which are the configuration options that can be defined to post unplanned delivery
costs?(Choose three)
A. The unplanned delivery costs are to be posted to separate G/L accounts
B. The unplanned delivery costs are to be distributed prorated to calculated invoice items
C. The unplanned delivery costs can be posted by rules defined within a BAdI
D. The unplanned delivery costs are to be posted to a price difference account
E. The unplanned delivery costs are to be split in equal shares across the invoice items
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.1 When creating a script package archive which file is used to define all the configuration
parameters that can be specified as part of the deployment process?
A. cbscript.json
B. config.sh
C. virtualimage.properties
D. appmodel.json
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer has created a virtual application that he wants to customize for two different
scenarios: 1.Development - where the workload demands are known to be low and predictable
2.Production where workload demands are erratic and in which case they want to incorporate a
scaling policy to dynamically scale VMs based on workload demand How can he best leverage IBM
PureApplication System to accomplish this task?
A. Create two different patterns, one for the development scenario and one for the production one
B. Create a development and a production environment profile for deployment of the virtual
application
C. Define two distinct layers in the virtual application pattern and assign the components and
policies accordingly
D. Create the virtual application as a reusable component that he can then augment for the
production scenario
Answer: C

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NO.3 An administrator on IBM PureApplication System wants to delegate his current role for catalog
content, virtual instances, and pattern types to another user. Which of the following settings would
the administrator grant?
A. Cloud administration
B. Workload resource administration
C. Hardware administration
D. Security administration
Answer: B

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NO.4 Figure 1 illustrates a typical ordering of parts startup within the Virtual Systems pattern editor.
What can you deduce from it? (Choose three.)
A. There are two default constraints that cannot be modified or deleted
B. The IBM HTTP server and the custom nodes can start in any order
C. The Deployment Manager and DB2 parts are involved in a default constraint
D. The DB2 part has to start first
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 What are available administration interfaces to IBM PureApplication System? (Choose three.)
A. Web Console
B. Command line tool
C. Representational state transfer (REST) APIs
D. Eclipse based plug-in
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 Add-ons are specialized scripts that customize virtual machine configurations providing fine
tuning for hardware and operating system configurations. Although add-ons have been
implemented modeling script packages, there are subtle differences between them. Which of the
following is NOT true?
A. You can not specify the order of execution of add-ons in the pattern editor
B. Add-ons always run at system creation time, never user-initiated or at deletion time
C. Add-ons always run before any user supplied script packages
D. Add-ons are pre-defined in IBM PureApplication System. You cannot supply your own
Answer: D

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NO.7 The IBM CE is only person allowed to perform certain system level operations on IBM
PureApplication System. Name some of those operations. (Choose two.)
A. The IBM CE uses a special user id named "ibmce" which is hidden from the user console
B. The IBM CE needs to request a special password tied to the system from IBM Support
C. The Client Hardware Administrator will need to enable login for the IBM CE
D. The IBM CE has full administrative permissions to the system
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 The Publish function in Rational Application Developer (RAD), when used in conjunction with
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A. Adds the application to an existing Virtual Application pattern and completes any linkages
between components
B. Creates a new Virtual Application pattern and populates it with the application from RAD
C. Adds the application to an existing Virtual Application pattern and starts a new instance of the
pattern
D. Adds the application to an existing Virtual Application pattern
Answer: D

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NO.1 A POWER7+system managed by IBM i is hosting an IBM i client that requires 24 virtual disks.
What is the minimum host configuration to support the client storage?
A. 2 vSCSIcontrollers 2 Network Server Descriptions
B. 1 vSCSIcontroller 1 Network Server Description
C. 3 vSCSIcontrollers 3 Network Server Descriptions
D. 4 vSCSI controllers 2 Network Server Descriptions
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer with a POWERS 520 running IBM i is debating consolidating to a POWER7+770
that is currently only running AIX, or replacing the POWERS with a POWER7+720. The budget is
limited, and the customer SWMA contract is expired.
Which option is the most economical?
A. Transfer the IBM i license to the POWER7+770
B. Purchase a POWER7+ 720 and a new IBM i license
C. Purchase a new IBM i license for the POWER7+ 770
D. Purchase a POWER7+ 720 and transfer the IBM i license
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer with a POWERS 520 and a FC #0595 expansion unit wants to upgrade to a
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Which elements of the original system can be used in the new system?
A. The TS2900 can be converted to SAS connectivity.
B. The memory DIMMS, if larger than 4GB, can be directly installed.
C. The EC #0595 expansion unit can be converted from HSL-2 to 12X.
D. The 70GB drive data can be migrated using Pack Utilities Maintenance Program in SST.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer would like to share a tape library among multiple partitions to run backups on a
nightly basis, but doesn't have the budget for a fibre switch or dedicated fibre adapters. They need
to be able to have their single fibre adapter available to each partition on a scheduled basis.
What product or feature can help accommodate this requirement?
A. iASP
B. BRMS
C. Media and Storage Extensions
D. Hardware Management Console
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer has a large quantity of LTO-2 media.
The customer would like to be able to read that media, while at the same time acquiring a tape
library which supports hardware encryption.
Which LTO format and attachment method supports these requirements?
A. SAS-attached LTO-5
B. USB-attached LTO-6
C. SCSI-attached LTO-3
D. Fibre-attached LTO-4
Answer: D

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NO.1 Samantha would like to use the Search functionality provided in the Application Layout control.
What does she need to do to configure search on the Application Layout control in the Properties
view?
A. Samantha needs to click on the Place Bar tab, enter "true" for the showSearch property, and
select the Page Name for displaying results.
B. Samantha needs to click on the All Properties tab, enter "true" for the showSearch property, and
select the Page Name for displayingresults.
C. Samantha needs to select the Title Bar tab, select "Show search controls (options dropdown, edit
box, and search icon)", and select the PageName for displaying results.
D. Samantha needs to click on the Search tab, select "Show search controls (options dropdown, edit
box, and search icon)", and select the PageName for displaying results.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What are two ways Olly can identify which of his applications are not assigned to a working set?
(Choose two.)
A. Open Bookmarks.nsf and look in the Working Sets\None view.
B. In the Applications view, in the Manage Working Sets menu, select All.
C. In the Applications view, in the Manage Working Sets menu, select None.
D. In Quick Links tab of the home page, click on the "Applications Not in Working Set" option.
E. In the Applications view, in the Manage Working Sets menu, select "Applications Not in Working
Set".
Answer: D,E

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NO.3 Olivia is adding a Send Mail simple action to her XPages application. Which two types of
formats are available for the body field of the email? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. MIME
C. HTML
D. Rich text
E. Plain text
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 Mary wants to debug the uncompressed version of the xspClientDojo.js. Which action can she
perform in order to do this?
A. Set the "Use Dojo layer libraries" option in the XSP Properties editor.
B. Set the "Use runtime optimized JavaScript and Dojo" option in the XSP Properties editor.
C. Set the "Use uncompressed resource files (CSS & Dojo)" option in the XSP Properties editor.
D. Uncompress the xspClientDojo.js file manually and upload it to IBM Domino Desginer via a JS
Library.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Ellie wants to add an icon as the first column on her Data View. How can she achieve this?
A. Ellie should add an xe:viewIconColumn to the details facet.
B. Ellie should add an xe:viewIconColumn to the iconColumn property.
C. Ellie should add an xe:viewIconColumn as the first column in the extraColumns property.
D. Ellie should add an xe:viewIconColumn as the first column in the summaryColumn property.
Answer: B

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NO.6 When using the Pager Save State Control, which property is used to define which control the
pager applies to?
A. for
B. target
C. binding
D. refreshId
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which option will provide a formatted table with two columns, three rows, a title,
description, and footer area?
A. Add a computed field to the custom control, change the content type to HTML, and enter the
following code: <table><td><tr></tr><tr></tr><tr></tr></td> <td> <tr></tr><tr></tr><tr></tr></td>
</table>
B. Add a computed field to the custom control, change the content type to HTML, and enter the
following code: <table><tr><td></td><td></td></tr><tr> <td></td><td></td></tr><tr>
<td></td><td></td></tr></table>.
C. Add a form table control to the custom control. Enter a title and description to the form title and
form description form options. Drop a formlayout row onto the table. Drop two layout column
controls onto the row. Repeat twice for the additional rows.
D. Add a form table control to the custom control. Enter a title and description to the form title and
form description form options. Drag a formlayout column onto the table. Drop three form layout
row controls onto the column. Repeat for the second column.
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NO.8 Richard wants to allow his users to select names from either of two views using the Name
Picker control. How can he do this?
A. Richard can use a single Name Picker with two dominoViewNamePicker dataProviders.
B. Richard will need to add two Name Pickers, each using a dominoViewNamePicker dataProvider.
C. Richard will need to use a beanNamePicker dataProvider to merge the contents of the two views
for a single Name Picker.
D. Richard can use a single Name Picker with a namePickerAggregator dataProvider. He can add two
dominoViewNamePicker dataProviders tothe namePickerAggregator.
Answer: D

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NO.1 GreenCo has set up several web content libraries for IBM Web Content Manager to separate
content. Tony is in charge of designing graphic images for all portals at GreenCo. He has set up a
library to store these images. Jackie runs the Marketing portal for GreenCo and uses the images that
Tony has created. Jackie sets up her library to syndicate from the authoring server to the Marketing
portal but receives syndication errors, what could be the cause of the errors?
A. Jackie needs to set up two-way syndication with the Marketing portal.
B. Tony needs to copy his Web Content Manager library to the Marketing portal.
C. Both Tony library and Jackie library need to be included in the syndication and a syndication
relationship should be created.
D. Tony needs to set up a new JCR database on the Marketing portal to store his images.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Xander needs to add a new personalization resource cache for a specific resource collection.
How does he do this?
A. Add rulesEngine.cache.enabled.collectionName to the PersonalizationService.properties file
where
collectionName is name of the resourcecollection and set it to true.
B. Set rulesEngine.cache.enabled to true inthe PersonalizationService.properties file.
C. He cannot enable or disable caching for a specific collection.
D. Set rulesEngine.collection.cache.enabled to collectionName in PersonalizationService.properties
file
where collectionName is name of theresource collection and set to true.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which best describes how you prevent linking to unsafe servers when creating links in an IBM
Web Content Manager rich text element to content in a remote enterprise content management
server?
A. You need to specify a list of allowed domains that your portal can access using the portal's AJAX
proxy component.
B. You can use the global Ajax proxy configuration to customize the outgoing HTTP traffic, such as
applying specific HTTP timeout values orconfiguring an outbound HTTP proxy server.
C. Map the URL patterns for the content management server to the federated_documents_policy
dynamic policy using the WP ConfigServiceconfiguration service using the IBM WebSphere
Integrated Solutions console.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Web content viewer portlets can be used to display IBM Web Content Manager content in an
IBM
WebSphere Portal environment. Barry needs to display a list of content items in one viewer portlet
such
that when an item is clicked its details are shown in another viewer portlet. How can he make this
happen?
A. It is not possible to have list and detail portlets on a single page.Instead, Barry should use one
viewer
portlet to allow for drill downmechanism.
B. Configure the - Broadcast links to - and - Receive links from -settings of the two content viewer
portlets
on the page.
C. No configuration is needed as two Web Content Manager viewer portlets on the same page will
come
with defaults that handle this list anddetail scenario.
D. Under preferences select the checkbox Master for the first content viewer portlet and checkbox
Detail
for second content viewer portlet.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Tony wants to migrate the web content data from IBM WebSphere Portal 7.0 to WebSphere
Portal
8.0. Which of the following options does he need to do?
A. He needs to run the wcmmigrate all-data task to migrate the IBM Web Content Manager data.
B. He needs to run the WPmigrate migrate-wcm task to migrate the Web Content Manager data.
C. He needs to make a copy of WebSphere Portal 7.0 JCR repository and run the ConfigEngine
connect-database task to connect to thecopy ofthe JCR repository.
D. He needs to make a copy of WebSphere Portal 7.0 JCR repository and run a ConfigEngine
validate-databasetask to connect to the copy ofthe JCR repository.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Users of the IBM Web Content Manager authoring system have just reported timeout errors
when saving large items.
What can be done to over come these errors?
A. Increase the total transaction lifetime timeout setting using the IBM WebSphere Integrated
Solutions console
B. Increase the session timeout using the IBM WebSphere Integrated Solutions console.
C. Increase the resource.maxUploadSize property in WCMConfigService using the IBM WebSphere
Integrated Solutions console.
D. Request users not to create items that are large.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is Attribute Based Administration in IBM WebSphere Portal Server 8.0?
A. Attribute based administration provides a facility to add or remove portlets from a WebSphere
Portal.
B. Attribute based administration provides a facility to customize the layout of a page for individual
authenticatedusers by using rules to show orhide pages or portlets inside WebSphere Portal.
C. Attribute based administration provides a facility add administrators to a WebSphere Portal
withouthaving to use WebSphere Portaladministration.
D. Attribute based administration provides a facility to block users from using WebSphere Portal.
Answer: B

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NO.8 John is building a website based on IBM WebSphere Portal that renders multiple portlets in
the portal pages, but he is required to show only specific portlets that user had depending on the
groups they belong in the LDAP.
How can he hide portlets to which logged in users do not have access?
A. John can use the Personalization features in the WebSphere Portal. He can hide the portlets by
creating a "Visibility Rule" to hide or displayportlet based on group membership.
B. John can use the Personalization features in the WebSphere Portal. He can create a "Select Action
Rule" rule anddisplay select portlets in thepage.
C. John can use the Personalization features in the WebSphere Portal. He can create a "Display Rule"
rule and display select portlets in the page.
D. No, Out of box Personalization features does not allow to hide specific porltets in the page. Only
the
visibilityof page can be controlled usingrules.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2140-822
Exam Name: Rational Requirements Composer V3
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NO.1 Which statement best describes the process of creating saved filters?
A. Saved filters are created, and then you define the filters that go into it.
B. After you have defined your collection, you can then decide which artifacts appear in the
saved filter.
C. After you have created your artifacts, you can associate the artifacts to your filter.
D. After you have defined filter criteria, you can save the filter for future use.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What does the use case model consists of?
A. actors and use cases
B. diagrams only
C. text only
D. diagrams and text
Answer: B

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NO.3 What does a business process diagram represent.?
A. global processes
B. enterprise processes
C. organizational processes
D. company to company processes
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which valid system files can be uploaded to a Rational Requirements Composer
project?
A. Word, Excel, CSV, and HTML only
B. Word, Excel, HTML, and images only
C. Word, Excel, CSV, HTML, and images
D. Word, Excel, HTML, and images only
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two actions can be taken against each artifact under review? (Choose two.)
A. approve
B. pass
C. disapprove
D. reject
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 An administrator wants to prevent a user role from updating project and personal
dashboards. Where
should the administrator manage this from?
A. Manage Project Properties
B. Open My Personal Dashboard (default)
C. Manage this Project Area
D. Lifecycle Project Administration
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two capabilities in Rational Requirements Composer allow authors to create and
modify artifact
content, attributes, and links in the Artifact editor? (Choose two.)
A. artifact format
B. Open Artifact checkbox
C. Edit button
D. double-clicking the artifact
E. right-clicking the artifact
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A. move artifacts between folders within the same project area
B. move folders within a project within the same project area
C. copy folders from one project area to another
D. delete folders within a project within the same project area
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NO.1 There are five key Real Estate and Facilities Management functions where TRIRIGA delivers
value to clients. Select the one that DOES NOT apply.
A. Real Estate Portfolio Management
B. Capital Construction Project Management
C. Space and Move Management
D. Maintenance Operations
E. Energy Management and Environmental Sustainability
F. IT Project Portfolio Management
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NO.2 What should you do before talking with a customer about potential areas of opportunity for
them to
increase revenues and improve asset performance?
A. Read their Annual Report to understand key areas of threat and opportunity
B. Talk with Maximo Industry Leaders about potential benefits for the client
C. Ask your neighbor who they favor to win the Super Bowl
D. Both A and B
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. Maximo for Nuclear Power is an Industrial Solution only for Nuclear Power Industry so therefore
this solution is not suitable to any other non-Nuclear Industrial customers.
B. Customers in other industries may use Maximo for Nuclear Power solution as long as the
customer installs other Maximo Industrial Solution together.
C. Maximo may be used by non-Nuclear Power customers as we have several customer
examples already.
Answer: C

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NO.4 In Maximo for Nuclear Power 7.5.1, following Maximo modules are enhanced:
A. Operation Management and Regulatory Management
B. Work Management and Configuration Management
C. Reporting and Supply Chain Management
D. Regulatory Management and Surveillance
Answer: A

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NO.5 Many new features are included in Maximo Calibration 7.1.1 release. Which of the following
features can be found in the Maximo Calibration 7.1.1 release?
A. Multiple PM Frequency & Loop Calibrations
B. Maximo Mobile Calibration & Multiple PM Frequency
C. Standard Validation and Non-Linear Instruments
D. Maximo Mobile Calibration & Non-Linear Instruments
Answer: A

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NO.6 Why is IBM Maximo the best solution for Nuclear Power Industry?
A. It provides users with ERP solutions that competitors do not have
B. It provides owners, operators and maintainers of nuclear power plants best practices to help
improve the productivity and efficiency of their critical assets.
C. It integrates with Primavera and other industry solutions
D. It can save energy for Nuclear Power Plants.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the best way for Enterprise to maximize Return on Assets?
A. Stop spending money
B. Determine the level of service they want to perform at and balance the resources against this
level of service at an appropriate cost level to accomplish positive profit position.
C. Engage 3rd party services to outsource all maintenance services
D. Deliver on service no matter what the cost
Answer: B

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NO.8 How can IBM Smarter Space Management solution help organizations to reduce facility costs?
A. Aggregates data, streamlines processes, simplifies reporting
B. Creates a smaller, more efficient workplace
C. Understanding what organization currently have, improving strategic facility planning, and
streamline workplace reservations
D. Reduces number of occupancy, grows revenue, increases customer satisfaction.
Answer: C

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