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Exam Code: CoreSpringV3.2
Exam Name: Core-Spring (based on Spring 3.2)
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NO.1 Consider the following complete configuration sample:
<bean class="rewards.internal.RewardNetworkImpl">
<property name="accountRepository" ref="accountRepository"/>
</bean>
<bean class="rewards.internal.account.JdbcAccountRepository"/>
Which of the following statements is true? (Select one)
A. This configuration is correct
B. This configuration is not valid because the first bean should have an id. Its value should be
"rewardNetwork".
C. This configuration is not valid because the second bean should have an id. Its value should be
"accountRepository".
D. Both (b) and (c)
Answer: C

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NO.2 Select which of the following configuration tasks would be implemented using Spring's XML
"context" namespace (select one or several answers)
A. Enabling component-scanning
B. Enabling the use of the @Transactional annotation
C. Enabling the use of the @Required, @PreDestroy and @PostConstruct annotations
D. Enabling the use of the @Around annotation
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Select which statement(s) is/are true with respect to programming to interfaces with Spring
A. The use of interfaces allows for reduced coupling between collaborating objects
B. Spring requires all beans to implement interfaces
C. Spring requires that parameters in constructors and setters are defined using interface types
D. Spring requires all beans to have an empty constructor (either default or declared)
Answer: A

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NO.4 When injecting scalar/literal values into Spring beans, which of the following statements is
true? (select one)
A. Scalar values cannot be injected into setters or constructors with primitive type parameters
B. Spring performs automatic type conversion for certain data types, such as String to int
C. In XML Spring configuration, you can inject scalar values using the ref attribute of the <property
/> tag
D. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following statements about the FactoryBean interface is NOT true? (select one)
A. A FactoryBean can be used to generate Spring beans of any type
B. The Spring configuration <property name="someValue" ref="myFactoryBeanImpl"/> will ALWAYS
inject the instance of the FactoryBean implementation
C. FactoryBean is a Spring interface
D. Factory objects used in Spring do not necessarily have to implement the FactoryBean interface
Answer: B

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NO.6 Select which statement is true with respect to constructor injection with Spring (select one)
A. Multiple parameters can be dependency injected into a constructor
B. Using XML configuration, the constructor-arg element may be omitted if the constructor requires
a single parameter
C. One single bean cannot mix constructor injection with setter injection
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following statements is NOT true with respect to Spring's ApplicationContext?
(select one)
A. The ApplicationContext eagerly instantiates all singleton beans by default
B. There are many different implementation classes which all implement the ApplicationContext
interface
C. When available, the close() method will cause any registered bean destruction code to be invoked
D. In a JUnit test using Spring support (with @ContextConfiguration annotation), it is necessary to
close the ApplicationContext manually
Answer: D

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NO.8 Consider the following code sample which creates an ApplicationContext from a file called
"application-config.xml" in the "rewards.internal" package, and a file called test-infra-config.xml in
the current folder:
ApplicationContext context = new
FileSystemXmlApplicationContext("classpath:rewards.internal.application-config.xml",
"file:testinfra-config.xml");
Which of those statements is true? (select one)
A. The use of the "file" prefix is not necessary
B. The use of the "classpath" prefix is not necessary
C. The use of the "." separator is correct
D. Both a and b
Answer: A

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NO.1 An AP was configured and assigned to an AP group then powered off for over a week. When
the AP is redeployed, what previous configuration will it retain?
A. It's AP name and AP Group
B. It's Serial Number
C. The controller's IP address
D. After a few days all configurations are lost
E. The controller IP address and the AP Group
Answer: A

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NO.2 An Aruba Controller is configured with VLAN 1,5, 200, and 4095. All VLANs have IP addresses
assigned. Which is the default management VLAN on the Aruba controller?
A. VLAN 5
B. VLAN 1
C. VLAN 200
D. None, it must be defined
E. VLAN 4095
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which command, when executed on a master controller, will show the APs connected to all
controllers?
A. show stm connectivity
B. show ap active
C. show ap database
D. show ap bss-table
E. show ap controller-lms
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the statements below are TRUE regarding ARM's Spectrum Load Balancing feature?
(Choose two)
A. Available only on 5GHz radios
B. Disabled by default
C. Balances client load across available channels/APs
D. Enabled by default
E. Available only on 2.4GHz radios
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 ip access-list session anewone user network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 any permit user host
10.1.1.1 any deny
user any any permit
Referring to the above portion of a Mobility Controller configuration file, what can you conclude?
(Choose two)
A. This is a session firewall policy.
B. This is an extended Access Control List (ACL).
C. Any traffic going to destination 10.1.1.1 will be denied.
D. Any traffic going to destination 10.2.2.2 will be denied.
E. Any traffic going to destination 172.16.100.100 will be permitted.
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 Which command will show all client association history?
A. Aruba-6000# show mobile trail current (ip address)
B. Aruba-6000# show ip mobile trail (ip address)
C. Aruba-6000# show ap client status (mac address)
D. Aruba-6000# show current client ip (ip address)
E. Aruba-6000# show client ip (ip address) mobility
Answer: B

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NO.7 A client device associates with an SSID provisioned with 802.1X authentication. The client is
set for LEAP authentication. EAP termination (AAA Fastconnect) is enabled on the controller. But the
client continuously cycles through the authentication process. Which of the following could cause
this?
A. The Radius server is rejecting the client credentials.
B. The client has an expired or revoked server certificate.
C. The DHCP server is not enabled.
D. The VLAN is missing for the SSID.
E. The controller does not support LEAP in this mode.
Answer: E

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NO.8 If a Remote AP (RAP) is attempting to contact a controller that is behind a NAT device what
protocol must be allowed through the NAT/Firewall?
A. PAPI
B. NATT
C. IPSec
D. SSH
E. GRE
Answer: B

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Exam Code: P-HCMTM-64
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Professional - HCM Talent Management with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4
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Exam Code: C-HANAIMP131
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate (Edition 2013) - SAP HANA
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NO.1 Your customer has implemented SAP Learning Solution (LSO) with Enhancement Pack 4,
Organizational Management (OM) and Performance Management (PM) and requires that the
managers are able to assign courses to their team member's performance appraisal document.
How do you provide this functionality?
A. Configure the integration of the performance appraisal template with the course catalogue.
B. Install the business package HCM_LSO_VLR and set up the parameter for the Add Course from
LSO BAdI.
C. Configure the performance appraisal template using the ORG_PM_APPR and add course to PM
Template BAdI.
D. Set up custom evaluation path and mandatory relationships to assign trainings to employees via
selected organizational units.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which areas are used by HCM Processes and Forms?(Choose two)
A. SAP Employee Interaction Center (EIC)
B. SAP Interactive Forms
C. SAP Business Workflow
D. SAP Network Process Integration (PI)
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 The Recruiter is searching for candidates using TREX search, but the system does not return
any results.
How do you test the TREX search function?(Choose two)
A. Check the free text search and the Boolean search in the E-Recruiting frontend.
B. Execute transaction KRPO IMS: Monitoring (SKPR07).
C. Execute transaction Retrieval: Search Server Relation Monitor (SRMO).
D. Check the free text search and the Boolean search in the E-Recruiting backend.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 HR wants to monitor the maintenance of Personal Development (PD) master data.
Which methods are available to audit this?(Choose two)
A. Program RPUAUD00 for logged changes to standard infotypes 0001-0999.
B. Log of report starts accessing logical database PCH.
C. Log of report starts accessing logical database PNP .
D. Transaction PPOME for organization structure changes.
E. Program RHDOC_DISPLAY for logged changes to standard infotypes 1000-1999.
Answer: D,E

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NO.5 An organization has the need to reduce their headcount. Therefore they need to identify jobs
and positions that have to be retained based on critical business processes.
How can you determine what jobs and positions are critical?
A. Execute Complete Job Description (S_AHR_61016501) from Organizational Management Info
System.
B. Execute Infotype Reporting (S_AHR_61016532) from Organizational Management Info System
using Spec. Position Characteristics (infotype 1958).
C. Execute Profile Matchup (PEPM) from Personnel Development Info System.
D. Execute Complete Position Description (S_AHR_61016511) from Organizational
Management Info System.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Your customer needs to manage their employees' performance by developing Key
Performance Indicators (KPIs) that support the Cascading Goals functionality in SAP ECC 6.0 EhP4.
How can you do this?(Choose two)
A. Install the application available in the portal for Business Package 1.40, configure the setting
Organizational Goals using the wizard and assign the 'Talent Management Specialist' role to
appropriate users.
B. Implement a BAdI to add Cascading Goals for all types of goals and three fixed enhancements for
adding Corporate Goals, Team Goals and Core Values.
C. Assign the Performance Management Specialist role to appropriate users to establish the
Corporate goals and Core Values, and cascade them through all levels of the company.
D. Configure the goal details and the KPI measurement on the appraisal template in the predefined
Performance Management Process User Interface.
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 After having set up structural authorizations, your customer is experiencing slow system
response times.
How can you improve system response times?
A. Delete all entries of structural authorization indexes and recreate each structural authorization
profile.
B. Generate indexes for users assigned to these structural authorizations using RHBAUS00.
C. Increase database storage capacity to better process the complex indexing associated with
building and maintaining structural authorizations.
D. Reduce the number of structural authorization profiles to allow fewer users access to the
structural authorization objects.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Your customer needs a 'Special Exempt' indicator on 'Job Attributes' (Infotype 1610).
What do you recommend?
A. Change the data dictionary definition of a standard text field.
B. Change the field attribute on Dialog Database Assignment Table (T777D).
C. Configure the Screen Modification Table (T588M) and set the field as a radio button.
D. Customize the Infotype to add a radio button for the additional field.
Answer: D

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Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Production - Planning & Manufacturing with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6
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NO.1 You want to use the different options for planning in SAP ECC.
What is the correct sequence of the planning procedures?
A. Sales and operations planning -> Demand management -> Long-term planning -> Material
requirements planning -> Capacity planning
B. Demand management -> Sales and operations planning -> Capacity planning -> Long-term
planning -> Material requirements planning
C. Material requirements planning -> Demand management -> Sales and operations planning ->
Long-term planning -> Capacity planning
D. Long-term planning -> Sales and operations planning -> Demand management -> Material
requirements planning -> Capacity planning
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which objects can affect the calculation of capacity requirements for an operation?(Choose
three)
A. Standard values (routing)
B. In-house production time (material master)
C. Transport time (routing)
D. Formulas (work center)
E. Operation control key (routing)
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.3 In the Customizing for requirements planning, a project team notices that the alternatives P1,
P2, P3 and P4 are also delivered as standard in addition to MRP type PD. The number in each of
these alternatives represents a firming type.
What does a firming type define?(Choose two)
A. Handling existing procurement proposals outside the planning time fence.
B. Handling existing procurement proposals within a planning time fence.
C. Handling new requirements within the planning time fence.
D. Handling new procurement proposals that need to be created due to new requirements within
the planning time fence.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Which of the following scheduling types can only be used in capacity planning?
A. Midpoint
B. Forward
C. Only capacity requirements
D. Backward
Answer: A

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NO.5 The final assembly of a finished product should only be triggered when a customer order
arrives.
Which planning strategy for the finished product do you use?
A. Planning with make-to-stock (strategy 10)
B. Planning at the assembly level (strategy 70)
C. Planning without final assembly (strategy 50)
D. Planning with final assembly (strategy 40)
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following master data can be used with process orders?(Choose three)
A. Serial numbers
B. Master recipes
C. Resources
D. Production/resource tools
E. Production versions
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.7 You want to enhance the system statuses of a production order with user statuses.
How do you do this?
A. Define the user statuses in the order type-dependent parameters.
B. Define a status profile in Customizing and assign it to the production scheduling profile.
C. Define a status profile in Customizing and assign it to the order type.
D. Define the user statuses in the Customizing table of the system statuses.
Answer: C

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A. Task list
B. Work center
C. Production version
D. Bill of material
E. Material master
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.1 On May 15, you try to process dunning for an account with an issue date of May 10.
Why does dunning fail to produce a result?
A. A dunning block which expired on May 13 was set on the contract account.
B. A dunning block which expired on May 13 was set on the business partner.
C. A dunning block which began on May 13 was set on the business partner.
D. A dunning block which began on May 13 was set on the contract account.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A tariff requires that for the same contract account, the consumption from the water meter is
used to bill the water consumption charge and the waste water consumption charge.
How can the water meter be installed to meet this tariff requirement?
A. Technically installed to waste installation; billing installed to water installation
B. Fully installed to water installation; technically installed to waste water installation
C. Fully installed to water installation; billing installed to waste water installation
D. Technically installed to water installation; billing installed to waste water installation
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer moves in to a premise and requests electricity service starting on June 7.
According to the schedule records, the scheduled meter reading date is June 29, the scheduled
billing date is July 1, and the allocation date for billing is June 30.
Given that batch billing is executed every night with all portions included, what is the first day the
customer's contract could be billed?
A. July 1
B. June 30
C. June 7
D. June 29
Answer: A

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10. Which of the following must exist before an agent can create an automatic billing document?
A. Validated meter reading result
B. Posted payment
C. Billable billing order
D. Active budget billing plan
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which processes can be directly called within the account display transaction? (Choose three)
A. Change contract
B. Display returns history
C. Mass change
D. Create budget billing plan
E. Display installation
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 A financial clerk is posting an FI-CA document.
Which scenarios can be posted? (Choose three)
A. The document has statistical general ledger items totaling $25.
B. The document has one statistical business partner item totaling $25.
C. The document has two business partner items totaling $25 and one general ledger item totaling
$25.
D. The document has two business partner items totaling $25 and two general ledger items totaling
$25.
E. The document has two business partner items totaling $0 and one general ledger item totaling
$25.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.6 Which object can be used in monitoring (EL31) to view meter reading results?
A. Contract
B. Device location
C. Connection object
D. Contract account
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the required technical master data for the SAP IS-U move-in?
A.Connection object
Installation
Premise
B.Contract account
Installation
Premise
C.Contract
Installation
Premise
D.Connection object
Installation
Device
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NO.8 You enter a meter reading manually and receive a message informing you that the reading
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What type of meter reading validation is this?
A. Meter reading control validation
B. Fixed validation
C. Independent validation
D. Dependent validation
Answer: C

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NO.1 An administrator would like to enable auto-attendant in Scopia Management.
What must the administrator do to ensure that auto-attendant works properly?
A. Restart the Elite MCU
B. Disable auto-attendant on the Elite MCU
C. Enable auto-attendant on the Elite MCU
D. Route auto-attendant to the Elite MCU
Answer: D

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NO.2 What are two features that Scopia Elite MCUs provide in a video conferencing deployment?
(Choose two.)
A. Continuous Presence
B. Integration to Microsoft Lync
C. Data Collaboration
D. Gatekeeper access
Answer: A,D

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A. 1
B. 3
C. 7
D. 1000
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are two of the main functions of the Scopia Video Gateway for Lync? (Choose two.)
A. SIP Presence to Lync client
B. H.323 Presence to Lync client
C. Point-to-point and Multipoint calls between Lync clients and H.323 devices
D. One Click to voicemail
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 What can you use to control the Scopia XT Telepresence system?
A. You can use the XT remote control for basic functions.
B. You can only use Scopia Control.
C. You can use both the XT remote control and Scopia Control.
D. You can use the XT remote control for all functions.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which action can a user take when using Scopia Mobile?
A. Participate in the conference as audio only
B. Perform most of the moderating functions of the conference
C. Perform all moderating functions of the conference
D. Share data with other participants
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the default port used by the PathFinder client to register to the Pathfinder server?
A. 443
B. 3089
C. 8080
D. 8443
Answer: B

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%5C%5Cwww.adobe.com(p.9, first bulleted point)

NO.8 Is registration to a Gatekeeper or SIP Proxy required when using the Video IVR/Auto Attendant?
A. Yes, it is required.
B. The Video IVR/Auto Attendant can be configured only with registration to a Gatekeeper.
C. The Video IVR/Auto Attendant can be configured only with registration to a SIP Proxy.
D. No, it is not required.
Answer: A

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NO.1 How is authentication and encryption implemented between collectors, aggregators
and the Central
Policy Manager in a multi-tier Guardium environment?
A. Using an encrypted file containing the system password that must be copied to the Central
Policy
Manager and collectors.
B. A System Shared Secret is specified through the GUI for each collector and the Central
Policy
Manager.
C. The Central Policy Manager scans the network for Guardium collectors and performs a
security
handshake with each appliance.
D. The communication between collectors and the Central Policy Manager is based on
unsecured
network packets.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is Guardium's primary storage mechanism for logs and audit information?
A. Data can only be stored in flat files on the collector (one file per S-TAP).
B. Data storage can only be managed individually by each S-TAP, with audit data stored
locally on the
data server in flat files.
C. Data is stored on the collector in a normalized relational database.
D. Data is stored locally on each server with an S-TAP but is managed centrally through the
collector.
Answer: C

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NO.3 In a Guardium environment where data servers can talk to the collector, what is the
relationship
between the S-TAP and the collector appliance?
A. There exists no relationship since the S-TAP and the collector are incompatible Guardium
entities.
B. The S-TAP reports database activity to the collector for policy management and auditing.
C. A collector can only interact with one S-TAP for policy management and auditing.
D. The collector sends the S-TAP information about its policies so it knows what traffic to
intercept.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following best describes the role of the aggregator in a Guardium
environment?
A. The aggregator is a Guardium appliance that collects and consolidates information from
multiple
collectors to a single Aggregation Server, allowing for reporting across the enterprise.
B. The aggregator is the Guardium appliance that communicates with mainframes.
C. The aggregator is a Guardium appliance that allows a collector and a Central Policy
Manager to
communicate and is required in multi-collector environments.
D. The aggregator is another name for the Central Policy Manager.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following components collects and parses the live database traffic used to
trigger a
real-time alert when a security policy rule is broken?
A. The Real Time Communications Framework
B. The Change Audit System
C. The Policy Engine
D. The Live Report Builder
Answer: C

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NO.1 What is the purpose of a project in IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1?
A. It allows for creating subsets of the elements stored in the global repository.
B. It allows for creating subsets of the elements stored in the Impact repository.
C. It allows for creating subsets of the elements stored across cluster members.
D. It allows for creating supersets of the elements stored in the global repository.
Answer: A

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NO.2 How is the name of the IBM Tivoli N etc oo I/Imp act Server Instance on the console
identified?
A. check the IBM Installer utility litslll.sh to show the Impact Server Instance Names that have
been set up
B. check the TIPProfile/logs/server1 directory - the SystemOutlog holds the Impact Service
Instance
name
C. use the nci_server command line utility to show the Impact Server Instance Names that
have been set
up
D. check the impact/etc directory - all Impact Server Instance-related files use the Instance
Name in the
beginning of every file name
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is true about the LDAP DSA?
A. It does not support data saved in UTF-8 format.
B. It does not retrieve information from LDAPV2/V3.
C. It allows IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpactto add, modify, or delete information managed by the
LDAP server.
D. It does not allow IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpactto add. modify, or delete information managed
by the LDAP
server.
Answer: D

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NO.4 In order for IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1 to start using the ObjectServer for
authentication, the server
must be configured so that it can map the roles that the application exposes to groups and/or
users
managed in IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus. Which file must be edited for this purpose?
A. omnibus.conf
B. omnibususers
C. guiserver.setting
D. objectserver.conf
Answer: C

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NO.5 In which folder are the IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1 service logs stored?
A. $NCHOME/logs
B. $IMPACT_HOME/log
C. $IMPACT_HOME/Iogs
D. $IMPACT_HOME/services/logs
Answer: C

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NO.6 On a server with only command line access, the server in an IBM Tivoli
Netcool/lmpact cluster is
identified as acting as a primary server by using which command line utility?
A. nci_server
B. nci_trigger
C. nci_get_primary
D. nci_findendpoint
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which tool will start a policy from the command line?
A. nci_crypt
B. nci_policy
C. nci_trigger
D. nci_import
Answer: C

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NO.8 Given only command line access, where is it verified that a newly started IBM Tivoli
Netcool/lmpact
Server instance is registering itself as a slave or primary in a cluster?
A. in the server.log file
B. in the netcool.log file
C. in the systemOut.log file
D. using the nci_server utility
Answer: B

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Exam Code: A2040-409
Exam Name: IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition Application Development A
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NO.1 James will need to use IBM LotusScript in order to modify the Calendar Profile stored in his
mail file. Given the following snippet of code, what would be the correct line for instantiating the
Calendar Profile? Dim session As New NotesSession Dim db As NotesDatabase Dim doc As
NotesDocument Set db=session.CurrentDatabase
A. Set doc=db.GetProfileDocument("CalendarProfile")
B. Set doc=db.SetProfileDocument("CalendarProfile")
C. Set doc=session.GetProfileDocument("CalendarProfile")
D. Set doc=session.SetProfileDocument("CalendarProfile")
Answer: A

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NO.2 Caroline is programmatically using the UniversalID property of a document. Which option will
return the same value as the UniversalID property?
A. @NoteID
B. @ReplicaID
C. @Command
D. @DocumentUniqueID
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which statement describes the embedded navigators?
A. Embedded navigators are not supported in a page.
B. Embedded navigators are not supported in subforms.
C. Embedded navigators are not supported in a browser.
D. Embedded navigators are not supported in the IBM Notes Basic client.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Felix is creating an application where a user will type extensive data into a text field. What is
the maximum amount of data IBM Domino can store in a text field?
A. 4 KB
B. 32 KB
C. 64 KB
D. limited only by available disk space to 1 GB
Answer: B

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NO.5 In IBM LotusScript, which NotesDocument class property can be used to find the owner of a
lock on a document?
A. LockHolders
B. DatabaseLock
C. DocumentLock
D. WhoIsLockHolder
Answer: A

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NO.6 James has a large number of image resources and he knows that the name of the image
resource will change when it is updated. How can he add an alias name to the image resource?
A. After the image resource name, type a vertical bar (|) followed by the alias name.
B. Image resource names are chosen when they are created and cannot be renamed.
C. Open the Image resource in the IBM Domino Designer client and add the alias name to the
"Alias" field.
D. Image resources are chosen at the time they are created and do not support an Alias name.
Answer: A

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NO.7 In which file are XPages application runtime configuration settings saved?
A. notes.ini
B. jsf.properties
C. xsp.properties
D. application.properties
Answer: C

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NO.8 Grayson created an application that is deployed on servers and with local replicas on individual
user workstations. What feature of IBM Notes can limit the data deployed to local replicas?
A. Managed Replicas
B. Database Encryption
C. Master Database Templates
D. Selective Replication Formula
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which three would you attach to a program on a projection process inside a layer? (Choose
three.)
A. An assumption set
B. A data process
C. An aggregation report
D. A category
E. A module
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
The arrow in the exhibit points to something missing in the AFM Output function. What is missing?
A. Filter_Name
B. Event Name
C. Module_Name
D. Program_Name
Answer: D

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NO.3 A client has redesigned their nonprofit endowment product to pay a guaranteed 110% of Sum
Assured on death rather than just the Sum Assured assumed in Standard Code. They want you to
update the model so that it will be unaffected when any future updates of Standard Code are
copied into the workspace.
How would you do this?
A. Change the existing formula to 110%* Sum Assured.
B. Comment out the original code within the existing module and replace with 110% * Sum Assured.
C. Copy the Sum Assured variable into a blank line at the bottom of theproduct and change the code
to 110% * Sum Assured.
D. Copy the Sum Assured variable into a blank line at the bottom of the module and change the
code to 110% it Sum Assured.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the role of modules in AEM?
A. Modules are components used to specify all data variables that are being passed in from an
external source.
B. Modules are sets of variables and events for carrying out calculations in Algo Financial Modeler.
C. Modules provide a diagrammatic view of a company structure that can be visualized within Algo
Financial modeler.
D. Modules containing all the components needed to complete a set of calculations in Algo Financial
Modeler are combined.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which three properties would be set for a layer in a model? (Choose three.)
A. Step length
B. Portfolio Date
C. Layer End Date
D. Model name
E. Layer name
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.6 In a model, to what would you attach an assumption set?
A. A data view
B. A module
C. Alayer
D. A projection process
Answer: C

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NO.7 A colleague has finished editing Standard Code and has passed it to you for development. You
notice a padlock symbol next to some of the modules.
What does the padlock mean?
A. This module has additional information attached to it.
B. This module must not be used indevelopment
C. This module is key Standard Code and must be used
D. This module is locked for editing
Answer: D

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NO.8 A new AEM user has downloaded Standard Code for the first time. The user knows that they
must delete some of the code but cannot rememberwhich part(s).
Which three parts would you tell the user to keep? (Choose three.)
A. All assumption sets and data views
B. Only assumption sets and data views beginning "Template_"
C. All modules
D. Only modules specific to their region
E. All events
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.1 What are the three basic components of the IBM OpenPages platform? (Choose three.)
A. Application server
B. Database server
C. Authentication server
D. E-mail server
E. Cognos Business Intelligence server
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.2 What must you do before entering information about the user, user account, and creating the
new OpenPages user?
A. Assign the user at least one profile.
B. Select the group to which the user will belong.
C. Assign the user at least one role.
D. Ensure that the organizationstructure has been finalized.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which part do role assignments play in security?
A. Pole Assignments provide the capability for users to use profiles and role templates together.
B. Pole Assignments provide the capability to define read, write, associate and delete access to
object types.
C. Pole Assignments provide the capability to control field behavior in the system based on role
template.
D. Pole Assignments provide the capability to control user and group access to objects.
Answer: D

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9. You are running the FastMap data load utility to import a template containing a set ofdata that
contains some validation errors.
What will EastMap do next?
A. FastMap will attempt to partial' import the correct data and report the errors of the data that
could not be loaded.
B. FastMap will use a fail-fast approach by stopping on thefirst validation error and reporting it
before continuing.
C. EastMap validates the entire workbook being imported and reports all validation errors found
and allows a corrected workbook to be imported to restart the process.
D. EastMap auto-corrects validation errors by using smart-defaults to correct values for any error.
Answer: C

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10. You need to configure views to help younavigate through the object hierarchy. Which two
views would you configure? (Choose two.)
A. Folder
B. List
C. Context
D. Overview
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, what is the correct Folder Path column value required so that the Boston
entity will be imported through FastMap?
A. /NorthAmerica/Mexico/United States/Canada
B. North America/United States/
C. United States/Cleveland/Boston
D. /North America/United States/Boston
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which three behaviors are supported by dependent fields? (Choose three.)
A. Required
B. Disabled
C. Editable
D. Visible
E. Locked
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.6 Using OpenPages, you want to define triggers to perform actions. What are three scenarios
where you would do this? (Choose three.)
A. Creating an Object
B. Creating an Object type
C. Associating Objects
D. Copying Objects
E. Creating a user
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.7 You want to use a filtered list view to build dynamic lists which are displayed in a user's
homepage. Which type offilter would be used?
A. My Filter
B. Public Filter
C. Quick Filter
D. Advanced Filter
Answer: B

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NO.8 Youare logged into the OpenPages platform with full administrative privileges.
You want to add a brand new field in the application so that a specific end user can see the new
field in the application when they log in.
Which two views under the Administration menu would you access? (Choose two.)
A. Object Resets
B. Field Groups
C. Profiles
D. Application Text
Answer: B,C

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NO.1 Which is NOT a way to check if the database is online?
A. nzstate
B. cat /proc/database
C. nzsystem showState
D. nzsql -c "select * from _v_system_info;"
Answer: B

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7. Given a plan ID, how would you obtain the query execution plan? (Choose two.)
A. Turn ODBC tracing ON.
B. Issue "SELECT * FROM _V_SESSION;"
C. Go to the query history within the Windows NzAdmin GUI tool.
D. Run EXECUTION PLAN before the query has been submitted.
E. Issue "SHOW PLANFILE <nn>;" after the query has been submitted.
Answer: C,E

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8. What is a characteristic of a column that is based on the TIMESTAMP datatype?
A. It includes a date portion.
B. It includes a timezone offset.
C. The value is reevaluated each time the row is selected.
D. The value is initially assigned when the row is first created.
Answer: A

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9. Which option does NOT trigger a HardwareNeedsAttention event?
A. A power supply has failed.
B. A switch has beenrebooted.
C. A SAS cable fails or is disconnected.
D. A chassis or fabric switch port is in a down state for longer than the defined threshold.
Answer: A

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10. Which procedural logic is NOT supported by NZPLSQL?
A. Scrollable Cursors
B. Looping (while, for)
C. Conditionals (if/else)
D. Returning a scalar result or a result set
Answer: A

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Topic 2, Volume B
11. Which component failure does NOT trigger a HardwareServiceRequested event?
A. Fan
B. Disk
C. Host
D. S-Blade
Answer: C

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12. Which statement regarding temporary tables is true?
A. They are limited to 1 terabyte in size.
B. They may include a DISTRIBUTE ON clause.
C. They are limited to 16per user per database.
D. They will be included in any nzbackup of the database.
Answer: B

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13. When a poor choice of distribution key is made, what is the impact to storage allocation?
A. Data is likely to negatively affect views.
B. Data is likely to negatively affect compression.
C. Data is likely to generate duplicate sequence values.
D. Data is likely to be unevenly spread across the system.
Answer: D

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14. What is nzconvert usedfor?
A. To convert compressed external tables into ASCII text.
B. To convert between character encodings before loading data.
C. To translate stored procedures into NZPLSQL compatible syntax.
D. To upgrade/downgrade the database to a different software version.
Answer: B

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15. Which statement is true?
A. All user space is available for database expansion.
B. Each database is assigned it's own section of disk space.
C. When creating the database you can specify whichdisks to use.
D. When you create a database you can set the maximum space it is allowed to use.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which statement istrue regarding the compress engine?
A. Compression ratio is data dependent.
B. Compression is performed by the host.
C. Compression degrades data scan speeds.
D. Compression is performed by the SAS switches.
Answer: A

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NO.3 An ETL/ODBC application is inserting 1 million records in a single transaction against the
PureData System for Analytics. 1 million individual INSERT SQL statements are generated. What can
make this faster?
A. Use a COPY command.
B. Use an EXTERNAL TABLE.
C. Increase the Socket Buffer Size.
D. Set the COMMIT interval to 10,000.
Answer: B

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NO.4 When unloading data via an external table, where can the SQL be submitted?
A. From a User Defined Function.
B. From nzsql on an AIX machine networked to the system.
C. From nzsql on Microsoft Windows networked to the system.
D. From an ODBC application on Windows networked to the system.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Where are the database log fileslocated?
A. /var/log
B. /usr/local
C. /nz/kit/log
D. The SYSTEM database
Answer: C

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NO.6 Why is table skew important to manage?
A. Low table skew negatively impacts performance.
B. High table skew negatively impacts performance.
C. Low table skew negatively impacts data compression.
D. Deleted rows consume disk space until they are freed.
Answer: B

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