2014年9月30日星期二

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NO.1 Davis is concerned that the Extension Library REST Service is not secure. Which is a true
statement?
A. The Extension Library REST service does not honor IBM Notes Domino Readers fields.
B. Access to an Extension Library REST service cannot be accessed without authentication.
C. An Extension Library REST service control honors all native IBM Notes and Domino security
features.
D. An Extension Library REST service can be accessed without authentication regardless of the
database's access control list.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Michael has designed a mobile application with two mobile pages. For the first mobile page he
set the pageName property to "page1" and for the second mobile page he set the pageName
property to "page2". What server-side simple action can Michael add on the second page to
navigate the mobile application user to the first page when touched?
A. Open Page
B. Open Mobile Page
C. Move To Mobile Page
D. Move To Application Page
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which is a valid named facet area of the Application Layout control?
A. footerFacet
B. titleBarTabs
C. mastHeader
D. mainContent
Answer: C

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NO.4 John added a Dynamic View Panel to the CustomersViews XPage to switch display to any one
of several views in the Customers application. He set the pageName property to the
CustomerDocument XPage to identify the XPage to open when a customer name is selected from
the displayed view in the Dynamic View Panel control. What must John do to have the selected
customer document open in read mode on the CustomerDocument XPage?
A. For the Dynamic View Panel, set the openDocAsReadonly to "true".
B. Nothing. The selected document in a Dynamic View Panel will by default open in read mode.
C. For the Domino Document data source on the CustomerDocument XPage set the
openDocAsReadonly to "true".
D. Code the onColumnClick event of the Dynamic View Panel control with the Open Page simple
action and set the target property to"openDocument".
Answer: D

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NO.5 Tyler has designed a viewMobilePage to display a listing of customer names from the
CustomersByName view. During testing Tyler determined that to avoid scrolling he will need to
restrict the number of customer names displayed on the viewMobilePage to ten. How can he do this?
A. Add the property and value of rows="10" to the <xe:dataView> control.
B. Add the property and value of rows="10" to the <xp:viewPanel> control.
C. Add the property and value of rows="10" to the <xp:dominoView> control.
D. Add the property and value of rows="10" to the <xe:mobileView> control.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statement is true for the Single Page Application control for use on a mobile XPage?
A. The XML tag for the Single Page Application control is <xp:singlePageApp>.
B. The XML tag for the Single Page Application control is <xc:singlePageApplication>.
C. The Single Page Application control is used only when the mobile XPage includes a single mobile
page.
D. There must be only one Single Page Application control as the container for all of the Application
Page controls on the mobile XPage.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which control, used to dynamically switch content, includes support to code the Dynamic
Content display using a Simple Action, client-side or server-side JavaScript?
A. Switch
B. Dynamic Content
C. Multi-image Output
D. Dynamic View Panel
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statement is true regarding the Extension Library Tooltip control?
A. A developer is not allowed to place other data components in between the <xe:tooltip> start and
end tags.
B. To use the beforeContentLoad and afterContentLoad properties, a developer must set
dynamicContent to true.
C. When the position property is set to auto, the tooltip calculates where it should display in
relation to the element on the page.
D. To use the beforeContentLoad and afterContentLoad properties, a developer does need to set
dynamicContent to false.
Answer: B

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NO.1 A large enterprise client wants to perform a benchmark on a PureFlex System to compare the
performance against a competitive solution. What is the best way for the client to proceed?
A. Try and Buy a PureFlex System and let the client perform the benchmark
B. Lease a PureFlex System from a Business Partner and have the Partner perform the benchmark
C. Invite the client to the local IBM Client Center (ICC) and have the ICC perform the benchmark
D. Visit an IBM Products and Solutions Support Center (PSSC) and have the PSSC perform the
benchmark
Answer: D

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NO.2 On a PureFlex system, how can an FSM be recovered if the management software is
inoperable because of misconfiguration or corruption, but the management node hardware is
operational and the hard drives have not failed?
A. Call smcli restore from the FSM CLI to restore the FSM
B. Call IBM Support and request a replacement of the FSM ITE
C. Connect to the Internet, download a new FSM image and install it over the IMM connection to
the FSM
D. Boot while pressing F12 and select the recovery partition as the boot device, then run a full
system recovery
Answer: D

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NO.3 The client has three independent redundant SAN fabrics: One for development, one for
validation and one for production. The client will use a chassis with x240 nodes to connect these
SAN fabrics. What is the best solution for the client?
A. Use two CN4054 adapters and two EN4093 switches, each with two FoD enhancements
B. Use two CN4058 adapters and two CN4093 switches, each with two FoD enhancements
C. Use two CN4058 adapters and four EN4093 switches, each with one FoD enhancement
D. Use one CN4054 adapter, LOM, and four CN4093 switches with FoD enhancements throughout
Answer: D

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NO.4 A client has a need for a Linux based solution that requires a large amount of memory. The
application runs on either x86 or Power nodes. Which of the following nodes would provide the
maximum memory configuration?
A. p460
B. x440
C. p24L
D. x240
Answer: B

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NO.5 A client has a PureFlex system and needs to upgrade their Flex System V7000 Storage
Node. Which interface would be used to accomplish this?
A. FSM
B. BIOS upgrade
C. Chassis Manager
D. Flex Node Interface GUI
Answer: A

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NO.6 The IBM Flex System Interoperability Guide is a handy reference document but its
information is only as accurate as of its most recent publication date. Where would the technical
expert find the latest complete information on supported FCoE configurations?
A. The FC-BB-5 standards documentation
B. IBM Flex System product development
C. Reference IBM's ServerProven web page
D. IBM System Storage Interoperation Center (SSIC)
Answer: D

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NO.7 A client has purchased a Flex System with a Flex System Manager (FSM) and a p260 node.
Which of the following is the most cost-effective procedure to install the VIO server?
A. Engage Lab Services to complete the installation
B. Use the external USB DVD RAM that IBM delivers with a Flex System
C. Copy the VIO ISO images onto the FSM and use the installios command
D. Launch the Remote Control from the FSM and remote mount the VIO ISO images from your
workstation
Answer: C

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NO.8 A client wants a PureFlex Express configuration with an additional EN4093R 10Gb Scalable
Switch module for redundancy. The Power nodes in the configuration have four-port 10Gb NICs and
the client applications planned for the Power nodes will require the use of all four of those ports.
What must the technical expert include in the configuration to meet this requirement?
A. An additional pair of EN4093R 10Gb Scalable Switch modules
B. IBM Flex System CN4054 Virtual Fabric Adapter Upgrade for each CN4054 adapter
C. IBM Flex System Fabric EN4093 10Gb Scalable Switch (Upgrade 1) for each switch
D. IBM Flex System Fabric EN4093 10Gb Scalable Switch (Upgrade 2) for each switch
Answer: C

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NO.1 The image here shows the components of a purchase order:
The application requires that the total number of items (TotalItems) in the Trailer Record equals the
sum of the quantity ordered (QtyOrdered) for each purchase order.
This verification can be performed by a component rule. Which component should have the
component rule?
A. TotalItems
B. QtyOrdered
C. Detail Record
D. Trailer Record
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two of the following statements are TRUE of a component rule? A component rule:
A. is used to create output.
B. is used for data validation.
C. can refer to any other component in the component list.
D. is always evaluated even if an optional component is not present in the data.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which two of the following statements are TRUE of syntax items? Syntax items:
A. are limited to 10 bytes.
B. can only be defined as character data.
C. can be defined as character or binary data.
D. are used as separators between portions of data.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Refer to image shown here:
Which of the following statements is TRUE with regards to the type trees created using the XML
Schema Importer.
A. The trees were created with different schemas.
B. One tree was created using XSDL Hints and Xerces validation.
C. One tree was created using Classic validation and XSDL Hints.
D. One tree was created using Classic validation and the other using Xerces validation.D.One tree
was created using Classic validation and the other using Xerces validation.
Answer: B

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NO.5 The structure of the following file has been partially defined in a type tree:
~Smith~Robert~Programmer<NL> ~Doe~John~Manager<NL>
The properties of the types have not been completely defined.
Which of the following options defines the properties for the use of the tilde (~) character in the
sample file?
A. Define ~ as a floating component of the Record type.
B. Define ~ character as a prefix delimiter of the File type.
C. Define ~ character as a prefix delimiter of the Record type.
D. Define ~ character as the initiator and terminator of LastName and FirstName types and initiator
of Title type.
Answer: C

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NO.6 An application developer has a file which consists of fixed length records.
The first record is a header record followed by some number of detail records.
The number of detail records is expressed by a value found in the header record.
How does the developer define this type of data in WebSphere Transformation Extender?
A. Index the input based on the count in the header record.
B. Use a Map function to keep track of how many detail records there are.
C. Write a custom function to store the number of detail records in the map context.
D. Use a component rule to compare the current record to the value found in the header.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the primary difference between a choice group and a partitioned group?
A. A choice group requires that data must be distinguishable; a partitioned group does not.
B. A partitioned group requires that data must be distinguishable; a choice group does not.
C. A choice group can have both items and groups as components; a partition group can only have
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D. A partitioned group can contain both items and groups as components; a choice group can only
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Answer: C

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NO.8 Which statement about syntax items is TRUE?
A. They must have a restriction list.
B. They have a maximum length of 1 byte.
C. The value must come from the input data.
D. They cannot be used as variable initiators.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Mary wants to debug the uncompressed version of the xspClientDojo.js. Which action can she
perform in order to do this?
A. Set the "Use Dojo layer libraries" option in the XSP Properties editor.
B. Set the "Use runtime optimized JavaScript and Dojo" option in the XSP Properties editor.
C. Set the "Use uncompressed resource files (CSS & Dojo)" option in the XSP Properties editor.
D. Uncompress the xspClientDojo.js file manually and upload it to IBM Domino Desginer via a JS
Library.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are two ways Olly can identify which of his applications are not assigned to a working set?
(Choose two.)
A. Open Bookmarks.nsf and look in the Working Sets\None view.
B. In the Applications view, in the Manage Working Sets menu, select All.
C. In the Applications view, in the Manage Working Sets menu, select None.
D. In Quick Links tab of the home page, click on the "Applications Not in Working Set" option.
E. In the Applications view, in the Manage Working Sets menu, select "Applications Not in Working
Set".
Answer: D,E

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NO.3 Olivia is adding a Send Mail simple action to her XPages application. Which two types of
formats are available for the body field of the email? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. MIME
C. HTML
D. Rich text
E. Plain text
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 Which option will provide a formatted table with two columns, three rows, a title,
description, and footer area?
A. Add a computed field to the custom control, change the content type to HTML, and enter the
following code: <table><td><tr></tr><tr></tr><tr></tr></td> <td> <tr></tr><tr></tr><tr></tr></td>
</table>
B. Add a computed field to the custom control, change the content type to HTML, and enter the
following code: <table><tr><td></td><td></td></tr><tr> <td></td><td></td></tr><tr>
<td></td><td></td></tr></table>.
C. Add a form table control to the custom control. Enter a title and description to the form title and
form description form options. Drop a formlayout row onto the table. Drop two layout column
controls onto the row. Repeat twice for the additional rows.
D. Add a form table control to the custom control. Enter a title and description to the form title and
form description form options. Drag a formlayout column onto the table. Drop three form layout
row controls onto the column. Repeat for the second column.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Samantha would like to use the Search functionality provided in the Application Layout control.
What does she need to do to configure search on the Application Layout control in the Properties
view?
A. Samantha needs to click on the Place Bar tab, enter "true" for the showSearch property, and
select the Page Name for displaying results.
B. Samantha needs to click on the All Properties tab, enter "true" for the showSearch property, and
select the Page Name for displayingresults.
C. Samantha needs to select the Title Bar tab, select "Show search controls (options dropdown, edit
box, and search icon)", and select the PageName for displaying results.
D. Samantha needs to click on the Search tab, select "Show search controls (options dropdown, edit
box, and search icon)", and select the PageName for displaying results.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Richard wants to allow his users to select names from either of two views using the Name
Picker control. How can he do this?
A. Richard can use a single Name Picker with two dominoViewNamePicker dataProviders.
B. Richard will need to add two Name Pickers, each using a dominoViewNamePicker dataProvider.
C. Richard will need to use a beanNamePicker dataProvider to merge the contents of the two views
for a single Name Picker.
D. Richard can use a single Name Picker with a namePickerAggregator dataProvider. He can add two
dominoViewNamePicker dataProviders tothe namePickerAggregator.
Answer: D

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NO.7 David has added a Name Picker control to his XPages bound to an Edit Box control. He needs
to allow the users to select multiple names. Assuming type-ahead is not enabled, how would he do
that?
A. Go to the Name Picker control. Add a multi-value separator to the Client separators box
(multipleSeparator property).
B. Go to the Name Picker control. Add a multi-value separator to the Suggestions separators box
(valueListSeparator property).
C. Go to the Edit Box control that will store the values. In the All Properties table, enter a multi-value
separator to the multipleSeparatorproperty.
D. Go to the Edit Box control that will store the values. In the All Properties table, enter a
multi-value separator to the valueListSeparatorproperty.
Answer: C

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NO.8 When using the Pager Save State Control, which property is used to define which control the
pager applies to?
A. for
B. target
C. binding
D. refreshId
Answer: A

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NO.1 What is the basic trade-off made in LNP XE when locating warehouses?
A. Routes and safety stock.
B. Transportation costs and warehouse variable costs.
C. Taxes and currency exchange rates.
D. Warehouse fixed costs and transportation costs.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Inventory and Product Flow Analyst (IPFA) only deals with products aggregated to what
level?
A. Product Family
B. SKU
C. Product Grouping
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is a benefit to the client of the authorized user licensing metric.?
A. The ability to have multiple users share a single machine
B. The ability to share a dongle key
C. The ability of a single user to have rights to run on their desktop, laptop, and a server
D. The ability to have a read-only version
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which statement is TRUE about performers in PIM?
A. Performers are assigned to collaboration area.
B. Performers are assigned against a workflow step.
C. We cannot have different performers for different workflow steps.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement is valid for scheduler consideration?
A. Type of job ?long running or quick report
B. Data source type
C. Job frequency
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What happens to the working copy of item if the final state is failure?
A. It is cached.
B. It is deleted.
C. It is stored in the user cache for future use.
D. It is stored in the database.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement best describes Import?
A. It is a web service that puts data in PIM.
B. It is a feed that inputs data from an external source to PIM.
C. It is a database command to put data in PIM.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following is NOT true about message IDs in logs?
A. It indicates the PIM component that had the error.
B. It has a unique numbering system.
C. It indicates the severity.
D. It indicates design or runtime error.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement best describes a collaboration area?
A. A place where different users can collaborate to define a product.
B. Container for workflows.
C. It is a workflow component.
D. It is a workflow scheduler.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which statement is TRUE about Lookup tables?
A. Lookup Tables can be used to store countries, provinces, states, tax rates, and can be created and
managed like standard items.
B. Lookup Tables can be used to store countries, provinces, states, tax rates, but cannot be created
and managed like standard items.
C. Lookup Tables cannot be used to store countries, provinces, states, tax rates.
D. Lookup Tables cannot be used to store countries, provinces, states, tax rates, but can be created
and managed like standard items.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following is best practice for using Java API?
A. Exceptions are avoided.
B. Have a single large Java class.
C. Avoid custom Java APIs.
D. Reuse objects.
Answer: D

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2014年9月29日星期一

H12-224 PDF VCE, H12-721 Exam Questions

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NO.1 Which of the following are popular link efficiency mechanisms?(Select 2 Answers)
A. IPHC
B. LFI
C. HDLC
D. PPP
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Which of the following statements about the Smart Link group is false?
A. A Smart Link group has two interfaces at most. The two interfaces if configured are an active
interface and a standby interface.
B. Among the two interfaces in a Smart Link group, one is in the active state and the other one in
the standby state in normal situations.
C. When the active interface goes down, the Smart Link group automatically blocks it and changes
the status of the standby interface to active.
D. When the active interface recovers from a fault, traffic will be switched back to it immediately.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements about the firewall technology are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The network gateway of the application layer checks application-layer data carried in packets
passing through the gateway.
B. The network gateway for session status detection checks session information carried in packets
only at the session layer.
C. During packet filtering, the session status is checked and the whole data stream is analyzed.
D. Address proxy replaces IP addresses and port numbers of hosts within the network with the IP
address and port number of the proxy device or router.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements about the link failure detection in STP protocol is not true?
A. When network topology is stable, the Designated Port sends BPDU packet at every Hello Time
interval.
B. When network topology is stable, BPDU packets will be transmitted periodically.
C. When the port does not receive new BPDU within a certain interval, the old configuration BPDU
will time out and the link failure can be detected.
D. The port sends Configuration BPDU at every Hello Time interval. When the link fails,
Configuration BPDU cannot be sent out. As a result, this port can detect the link failure.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following statements are correct regarding default gateway of PC in the network
running VRRP?
A. Configure only one gateway for the PC which is the IP address of Master.
B. Configure only one gateway for the PC which is the IP address of virtual router.
C. Configure two gateways for the Pc which are the IP addresses of Master and Slave.
D. Configure three gateways for the PC which are the IP addresses of Master, Slave and virtual router.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A VRRP virtual router can have one or more IP addresses.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following packet drop policies can be applied to the congestion avoidance
mechanism? (Select 3 Answers)
A. Tail-drop
B. RED
C. WRED
D. WFQ
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 RTA is a source's DR and RTB is an RP . A multicast source sends multicast data to RTA but RTB
cannot find any information about the multicast source (registered by using the PIM Register
message). Why? (Select 3 Answers)
A. RTB has no unicast routes to RTA.
B. RTA fails to learn RP information.
C. RTA has no unicast routes to RTB.
D. The RP learned by RTA is not RTB.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.1 Microsoft patch does not include what level?
A. Key
B. Serious
C. Important
D. Medium
Answer: D

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NO.2 ASPF makes firewall to support multiple data channels of a control on the channel protocol,
but also to facilitate the formulation of policies in various security applications are very complex
situation.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.3 USG (Eudemon) firewall nat configuration is as follows: #
nat address-group 1 10.1.1.5 10.1.1.10
nat server 1 protocol tcp global 1.1.1.1 ftp inside 10.1.1.2 ftp # nat-policy interzone dmz untrust
inbound
policy 0
action source-nat
policy destination 1.1.1.1 0
address-group 1 #
The following statement is correct that:
A. NAT outbound configuration,network users to access the external network into an address in the
address pool 10.1.1.5 10.1.1.10
B. untrust host access nat server 1.1.1.1, destination address into 10.1.1.2, the original address
unchanged
C. Built- domain nat,DMZ host access nat server 1.1.1.1, destination address into 10.1.1.2, the
source address into the address pool 1
D. NAT inbound configuration,untrust host access nat server 1.1.1.1, destination address into
Answer: D

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NO.4 Note that when the Clear to clear ISAKMP SA SA Stage 1, and then remove IPSEC SA Phase 2.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.5 SVN3000 web proxy server resources can only be accessed by clicking on the web SVN list.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.6 VPN by business use classification does not include which of the following?
A. Access VPN
B. Intranet VPN
C. Internet VPN
D. Extranet VPN
Answer: C

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NO.7 TSM systems enable the "Monitoring DHCP settings" strategy, end users will be forced to only
use DHCP to obtain an IP address automatically.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.8 Here on the NAS-Initialized the L2TP VPN, correct statement are: (Choose three)
A. Remote users via PSTN / ISDN access NAS (LAC), LAC determine whether the L2TP users.
B. L2TP remote user to user,LAC to the LNS initiates channel connection establishment request.
C. LNS assigns a private IP address for remote dial-up users
D. Validation of remote dial-up users can only be done at the LNS
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.1 Which features in a pre-configured driver can be locked? (Select two.)
A. orientation
B. print quality
C. duplex/simplex
D. job storage with private pin
E. printing in grayscale
Answer: C,E

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Reference:http://h10032.www1.hp.com/ctg/Manual/c02029521.pdf(page 10)

NO.2 What does Driver Pre-Configuration allow administrators to do?
A. pre-configure printer drivers for multiple printers before deployment
B. pre-configure printer drivers for multiple printers after deployment
C. reconfigure embedded device settings on multiple printers before deployment
D. reconfigure printer drivers for multiple printers after deployment
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.t35.physik.tu-muenchen.de/Rechnerdoku/HP4700_Driver_Configuration.pdf

NO.3 Which devices are supported by HP Web Jetadmin? (Select two.)
A. Bluetooth-connected printers
B. printers attached to the serial port of a networked PC
C. standard MIB-compliant printers
D. printers with Embedded Web Servers (EWSs)
E. infrared-connected printers
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 Which HP solution is available at no charge for detailed printer hardware analysis?
A. OpenView
B. Insight Manager
C. HPWebJetadmin
D. MarkVision
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is getbulk?
A. an enhanced version of SNMPvl trap
B. a method of retrieving large blocks of MIB data
C. a method of notification that the trap has been received
D. a security feature within firmware
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www.manageengine.com/network-monitoring/what-is-snmp.html(basic
commands of snmp, third bullet)

NO.6 Which data structure contains a database of objects?
A. SNMP GETNEXT
B. Printer MIB
C. SNMP SET
D. Inform
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www.planex.net/pdf/print/PCI_Mini-103MN_manual_E_V1.pdf(page 37)

NO.7 What can be applied to groups that automatically populates or de-populates the group with
device members?
A. filter
B. subgroup
C. policy
D. list
Answer: C

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Reference:http://h20565.www2.hp.com/portal/site/hpsc/template.BINARYPORTLET/public/kb/doc
Display/resource.process/?spf_p.tpst=kbDocDisplay_ws_BI&spf_p.rid_kbDocDisplay=docDisplay
ResURL&javax.portlet.begCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken&spf_p.rst_kbDocDisplay=wsrpresour
ceState%3DdocId%253Demr_na-c019417864%257CdocLocale%253D&javax.portlet.endCacheTok=c
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NO.8 You find that devices on remote networks cannot be discovered. What can cause this?
A. The routers might be blocking SNMP queries.
B. The local area network is corrupt.
C. The host-based systems are creating interference.
D. The server does not have a large enough processor.
Answer: A

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NO.1 A customer has an HP BYOD solution based on an HP 830 Unified Wired-Wireless Controller and
HP 425 Access Points (APs). To ease the controller adoption of the APs, a VLAN is set up on the
corporate LAN. How should this VLAN be configured?
A. Set the VLAN on the switches between the APs and Comware L3 switch
B. Set the VLAN as VLAN 1
C. Set the VLAN on the switches between the APs and 830 wireless controller
D. Set the VLAN on the switches between the APs and the 830 switch
Answer: D

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NO.2 Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the access controller configuration shown in the exhibit, when can newly discovered access
points (AP) join this AC?
A. An AP can automatically join if the controller recognizes the AP serial number
B. An AP can automatically join if the controller recognizes the AP IP subnet address
C. An AP can automatically join if the controller recognizes the AP name
D. An AP can automatically join if the controller recognizes the AP model type
Answer: D

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NO.3 When is a User Access Manager certificate required?
A. in 802.1X mode during EAP authentication process
B. in PAP authentication
C. with a WPA/WPA2 preshared-key
D. in MAC authentication
Answer: A

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NO.4 How does an HP BYOD implementation differ from a simple MAC authentication?
A. In MAC authentication, the MAC address exists as an account in the User Access Manager
database. In BYOD, the MAC address of an endpoint is learned during registration.
B. In MAC authentication, the MAC address exists as an account in the User Access Manager database
In BYOD, a successful MAC authentication of an endpoint must precede the registration of a user
account.
C. In MAC authentication, the MAC address exists as an account in the User Access Manager database
In BYOD, the MAC address of an endpoint does not need to be learned; the user account is what
matters.
D. In MAC authentication, the MAC address is learned during the first authentication. In BYOD, the
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Answer: A

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NO.5 Where can a network administrator check for successful authentication in User Access
Manager?
A. User Access Log > Auth Failure Log
B. User Access > LDAP Users
C. User Access Log > Access Details
D. User Access > Access Device Log
Answer: D

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NO.6 A branch location is deploying standalone wireless access points (APs). What can be used to
configure and manage these APs? (Select two.)
A. Access Controller
B. Web interface
C. IMC/UAM
D. IMC/EAD
E. CLI
Answer: B,E

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NO.7 A business deploys a wireless network that includes an HP 10500/7500 module and 120 access
points (APs). They plan to increase the number of APs to 250. Which step must be performed in order
to register the upgrade's license management feature?
A. On the controller, in System view, enter the command license register ap.
B. On the controller, in User view, enter the command license register ap.
C. On the controller, in the My Networking Windows, select the update licenses option.
D. On the controller, in License view, enter the command register ap.
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NO.8 Which feature must be enabled globally on the VLAN of the wireless interface to enable
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A. Internet Group Management Protocol
B. Inter Access Controller Tunneling Protocol
C. Simple Network Management Protocol
D. Lightweight Access Point Protocol
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which BladeSystem Interconnect module supports FCoE Data Center Bridging?
A. HP VC 8Gb 24-port FC
B. Virtual Connect Flex-10/10D
C. HP 4X FDR InfiniBand Managed Switch
D. HP FIex-10 10Gb
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer has an HP BladeSystem c7000 enclosure with four power supplies.
The power supplies are in bays 1, 2, 3, and 4.
The customer wants to configure the enclosure to have AC redundant power while minimizing costs.
What should the customer do?
A. Move the power supply from bay 1 to bay 5.
B. Move the power supply from bay 3 to bay 5.
C. Insert a new power supply in bay 5.
D. Insert a new power supply in bay 6.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are the three bit settings on interconnects for Thermal Logic management on the HP
BladeSystem C7000 enclosure? (Select three.)
A. Warm
B. Good
C. Alert
D. Cool
E. Hot
F. Critical
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.4 How does Dynamic Power Capping control the power utilization in an enclosure?
A. It determines whether power supplies are active or standby and regulates their utilization.
B. It adjusts fan and disk speeds to maintain predetermined power use levels.
C. It uses processor p-states to adjust power consumption and performance.
D. It prevents servers from powering up if their power usage would exceed the enclosure power
limit.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is a feature of the HP D2220sb PCIe storage blade?
A. support for an onboard P410i controller, write cache optional
B. support for up to 24 solid state drives 9
C. support for up to 12 small form factor drives
D. integration with 2Gb, 4Gb, or 8Gb Fibre Channel
Answer: C

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Reference: http://h20195.www2.hp.com/v2 /GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA4-4884ENW.pdf

NO.6 Which three actions can be taken from the Onboard Administrator (OA) First Time Setup
Wizard? (Select three.)
A. initial server profile configuration
B. enclosure bay IP addressing
C. activate Single Sign-On use
D. set the lockout PIN
E. configure SNMP settings
F. create local user accounts
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.7 What is a requirement for double-chip sparing on HP Integrity blades?
A. Proactive memory scrubbing
B. CPUs installed in pairs
C. 4 DIMMs, 4 GB or larger
D. 8 DIMMs, 2 GB or smaller
Answer: A

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Reference:
https://h10139.www1.hp.com/h41111 /rfg_formprocessor/hp_ess_ngmc/es/es/pdf/ 4AA20982ENW
_RAS%20Features.pdf (page 4, double-chip memory sparing)x

NO.8 Where are the Service Pack for ProLiant (SPP) Hot Fixes and Customer Advisories available
online? (Select two.)
A. SPP Blades subset version page
B. SPP Information Library
C. SPP fully bootable ISO
D. SPP Release Archive page
E. SPP download web page
Answer: A,E

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Reference: http://h18004.www1.hp.com/products/servers/service_packs/en/ca.2013.09.0(B).html

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NO.1 What is one benefit of a software-defined networking (SDN) solution for a WAN?
A. SDN applications can automatically deploy key services on branch zl or MSR modules in case of a
failed WAN connection.
B. SDN applications provide a remote connection to servers so that remote IT staff can identify and
resolve issues.
C. SDN applications provide a graphical interface for scripting CLI commands for multiple branches
at once.
D. SDN applications can adjust WAN bandwidth provisioning granularly, dynamically, and
intelligently.
Answer: D

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NO.2 A company has an IRF-based, 2-tier FlexFabric architecture in its data center. The company is
now increasing the amount of server virtualization and also adding more redundant connections
across the network infrastructure backbone. Which benefit does software-defined networking (SDN)
provide for this FlexFabric solution?
A. SDN applications can extend the virtual switches inside hosts into the control plane of multiple
physical infrastructure devices.
B. SDN can help core routing switches handle more routing table entries without sacrificing
performance.
C. SDN extends the SNMP MIBs to include MIBs for virtual switches.
D. SDN applications can help to provision network connectivity for virtual machines and to forward
traffic across complex meshes of links
Answer: A

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Reference:http://h20195.www2.hp.com/V2 /GetPDF.aspx/ 4AA44714ENW.pdf?jumpid=em_r1165_w
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NO.3 A customer has a network consisting of 90 switches running OpenFlow 1.0.
High Availability is not required as a hybrid network is being used.
Which license types does the customer need to purchase? (Select two.)
A. HP VAN SDN Ctrl 100-node E-LTU
B. HP VAN SDN Ctrl HA E-LTU
C. HP VAN SDN Ctrl Base SWw/ 100-node E-LTU
D. HP VAN SDN Ctrl Base SW w/ 50-node E-LTU
E. HP VAN SDN Ctrl 50-node E-LTU
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 An SDN developer wants to develop a new OpenFlow proactive application using the HP VAN
SDN Controller. The controller is configured with IP address 192.168.56.7 and is using release
2.0. The developer is unsure of the REST APIs available on the controller.
To which URL should you recommend the developer navigate?
A. https://192.168.56.7:8443 /api
B. https://192.168.56.7:8443 /sdn/ui
C. http://192.168.56.7:8443 /api
D. http://192.168.56.7:8443 /sdn/ui
Answer: B

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NO.5 An administrator wants to secure the connection between an HP Provision switch and HP VAN
SDN Controller What is the recommended approach to securing the OpenFlow messages?
A. Use CA-signed certificates on an HP VAN SDN Controller and the HP Provision switches, and then
use TLS to secure communication.
B. Use OpenFlow message type 5 on the auxiliary channel to secure OpenFlow messages.
C. Use an IPsec VPN between the HP Provision switch and the HP VAN SDN Controller to secure
OpenFlow messages.
D. Use self-signed certificates on an HP VAN SDN Controller and the HP Provision switches, and then
use TLS to secure communication.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What are the addressing requirements for an HP VAN SDN Controller team?
A. A team requires two IP addresses for each controller, plus one IP address assigned to the team.
B. A team requires one IP address for each controller, plus one IP address assigned to the team.
C. A team requires one IP address, and members communicate using their MAC addresses.
D. A team requires one IP address for each controller; each is configured with the same multicast
address.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A team requires one IP address for each controller, plusone IP address assigned to theteam. If the
current team manager goes down, the failover process includes keeping the team IP address active
on the new team manager.
Reference:http://h20566.www2.hp.com/portal/site/hpsc/template.BINARYPORTLET/public/kb/doc
Display/resource.process/?spf_p.tpst=kbDocDisplay_ws_BI&spf_p.rid_kbDocDisplay=docDisplay
ResURL&javax.portlet.begCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken&spf_p.rst_kbDocDisplay=wsrpresour
ceState%3DdocId%253Demr_na-c040031142%257CdocLocale%253D&javax.portlet.endCacheTok=c
om.vignette.cachetoken(page 54)

NO.7 Which OpenFlow version introduces multiple flow tables?
A. 1.0
B. 1.1
C. 1.2
D. 1.3
Answer: D

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Reference:https://wiki.opendaylight.org/images/d/dc/Openflow1.3_Support_for_Opendaylight.pdf

NO.8 What are challenges when selecting traffic from UC&C soft devices for marking, in order to
apply the appropriate prioritization? (Select two.)
A. UC&C traffic uses dynamic port numbers.
B. UC&C traffic is not peer-to-peer
C. UC&C traffic is routable.
D. UC&C traffic uses well-known port numbers.
E. UC&C traffic can share a port, mac,and VLAN combination with non-UC&C traffic.
Answer: A,D

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Reference:http://johnacook.files.wordpress.com/ 2014 / 03 / 2014_02_27_use_case.pdf(page 7, bullet #
2)