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Exam Code: A2150-575
Exam Name: Assess: IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
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Exam Code: 000-M65
Exam Name: IBM Lotus XPages Technical Sales Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 What are some of the questions you should ask yourself when analyzing your existing Domino NSF
application for modernizing with XPages?
A. All of the below
B. How much UI code do you have?
C. How complex are your subs and functions?
D. How do you use Rich Text, if any at all?
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following provides an integrated development environment for building XPages
applications?
A. Lotus Domino Messaging Express
B. Lotus Domino Administrator
C. Lotus Domino Designer
D. Lotus Collaboration Express
Answer: C

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NO.3 Where should a Developer go to freely manipulate inline style coding for an object?
A. Design
B. Source
C. Properties
D. Controls
Answer: B

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NO.4 How are iNotes (DWA) widgets enabled?
A. formsXX.nsf
B. Mail policies
C. Dojo toolkit
D. Mail template settings
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following is NOT one of the performance enhancements to XPages in the 8.5.1 release?
A. New properties for better control of the JSF lifecycle
B. Domino Designer built on top of Eclipse
C. JavaScript interpreter performance
D. End user experience / browser rendering
Answer: B

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Exam Code: A2150-195
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NO.1 Using Quick Filter, what is a correct search term to find Blocked related activities in the
payload?
A. Blocked
B. "payload includes Blocked"
C. payload includes "Blocked"
D. (payload includes) Blocked
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which flow source is most often sampled?
A. vFlow
B. sFlow
C. QFlow
D. netflow
Answer: B

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NO.3 How does a user search for events by high/low level category?
A. Actions menu > add a filter
B. Display drop-down > select categories
C. Add Filter icon > Category drop-down
D. View drop-down > select By Category drop-down
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is a QID identifier?
A. A mapping of a single device to a Q1 Labs unique identifier.
B. A mapping of a single event of an external device to a Q1 Labs unique identifier.
C. A mapping of multiple events of a single external device to a Q1 Labs unique identifier.
D. A mapping of a single event to multiple external devices to a Q1 Labs unique identifier.
Answer: B

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NO.5 On the Offense summary page, which filter is executed when the Events icon or the link with
the
number of events is clicked?
A. An event filter with all events matching the source IP address
B. An event filter with all events matching the destination IP address
C. An event filter with the Custom Rule Engine rule(s) for the last 24 hours
D. An event filter with the Custom Rule Engine rule(s) for the duration of the offense
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the rule for using the Quick Filter to group terms using logical expressions such as AND,
OR, and NOT?
A. The syntax is not case sensitive.
B. The syntax is case sensitive and the operators must be upper case to be recognized as logical
expressions and not as search terms.
C. The syntax is case sensitive and the operators must be placed between square brackets to be
recognized as logical expressions and not as search terms.
D. The syntax is case sensitive and the operators must be lower case and placed between square
brackets to be recognized as logical expressions and not as search terms.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What does it mean if events are coming in as stored?
A. The events are not mapped to an existing QID map.
B. The events are being captured and parsed by a DSM.
C. The events are being captured but not being parsed by a DSM.
D. The events are being stored on disk and will be parsed by a DSM later.
Answer: C

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NO.8 If a report author shares a report with another IBM Security QRadar V7 0 MR4 user, what type
of report access is granted to the other user.?
A. The other user can only access the report if they are an administrator.
B. The other user can use the original report as if it were created by that person.
C. The report output will be defined by the intersection of networkobjects and log sources of alluser
with
whom the report is shared.
D. The other user will not have any access to the original report definition but can do as they please
with
the report definition of the shared copy.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which architectural functionality of the XIV product almost completely eliminates hot spots?
A. RAID 10
B. SSD caching
C. InfiniBand backplane
D. Data distribution algorithm
Answer: D

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NO.2 A new ProtecTIER customer wants to know what the standard warranty is on that system.
What is the correct answer to give this customer?
A. One year. 9x5 is the standard warranty.
B. One year. 7x24 is the standard warranty.
C. Three years, 9x5 is the standard warranty.
D. Three years. 7x24 is the standard warranty.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer is considering adding Real-time Compression software to their currently installed
SAN Volume Controller.
Which workload would benefit most from Real-time Compression software?
A. video files
B. database
C. software development
D. encrypted files
Answer: B

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Reference: http://www-03.ibm.com/systems/storage/network/rtc/stn6800/features.html

NO.4 Which feature clearly differentiates XIV from an EMC VMAX in terms of lowering the total
cost of ownership?
A. throughput
B. thin provisioning
C. graphical user Interface (GUI)
D. ability to utilize multiple RAID types
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer plans to replace its storage infrastructure which supports Oracle databases and a
server farm based on VMware by a storage grid architecture. A Business Partner sales specialist
proposes a two XIV grid system with 486 TB of usable capacity and implementation services.
What approach may be used to migrate the applications' data?
A. Configure the XIV with IBM Lab Services
B. Use the XIV native migration facility
C. Develop scripts to automatically move the data
D. Use host resources to migrate the data using LVM
Answer: A

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NO.6 An existing EMC customer has a number of UNIX and Windows based applications that are
hosted on an EMC VMAX 10K system and the storage is fully populated. As part of an acquisition,
the customer now wants to add a small mainframe into the current environment.
What is the best reason to recommend the DS8870 in this situation?
A. DS8870 provides increased ease of use over the VMAX 10K.
B. A DS8870 is capable of managing Count Key Data (CKD) volumes.
C. The DS8870 is capable of providing system-wide encrypted volumes.
D. A VMAX 10K would require an upgrade to support FICON protocol.
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer has an Oracle database running on z/OS. The customer wants to keep three copies
database at separate sites.
Which feature would allow them to do that?
A. Metro Global Mirror
B. Active Cloud Engine
C. Volume Mirroring
D. System z HyperPAV
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer has several different storage systems from different vendors all connected on a
storage area network. All arrays are at least 80% utilized, and the customer needs additional
capacity. Rack space and power are very limited.
Which SAN Volume Controller concept should a sales specialist emphasize to convince the customer
to purchase a SAN Volume Controller?
A. Compression
B. Deduplication
C. Virtualization
D. Block and file I/O
Answer: A

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NO.1 The IBM Sterling Collaboration Network archives data for how long at no additional charge?
A. 3 days
B. 35 days
C. 45 days
D. 15 days
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the strategic foundation platform for IBM's B2B software solutions?
A. Connect:Direct
B. WebSphere Transformation Extender
C. IBM Sterling B2B Integrator
D. IBM Sterling Collaboration Network
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are the visibility and control characteristics of IBM Sterling B2B Integrator?
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B. Long term storage and archiving.
C. Configurable dashboards, EDI / B2B tracking and reporting.
D. Links directly to IBM WebSphere Business Monitor.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT a ° m us t hav ¡± capa b ili ty fo r cu st om ers t h a t are a t t em p t i n g to s ol v e t h e i
data movement challenges?
A. Pass tougher security audits.
B. Double their transfer capacity without increasing staff.
C. Cut new connection cycle time in half.
D. Remove the FTP risk.
E. All are ° m us t hav ¡± capa b ilit i e s
Answer: A

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NO.5 In a customer success story, Kroger reports that they transfer over _______ of data per day using
IBM/Sterling managed file transfer solutions.
A. 500 GB
B. 1 TB
C. 5 TB
D. 10 TB
Answer: B

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NO.6 What capabilities are required to optimize your dynamic business network?
A. B2B communications
B. Process automation
C. Community enablement
D. Visibility
E. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.7 All of the top_____ banks in the world depend upon IBM Sterling Managed File Transfer to secure their
data movement.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 50
D. 100
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are some tangible business benefits that customers achieve from using Sterling B2B Integrator.?
A. Rapidly develop new sales channels.
B. Cut B2B development and implementation time by up to 75%.
C. Improve visibility of inventory and shipment status across the supply chain.
D. On board smaller partners at minimal cost.
E. All of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which of the following rules will retain FIELD1 with the longest last name and TITLE
equals to "MR"?
A. FIELD1: SIZEOF(TRIM(c."LASTNAME"))<= SIZEOF(TRIM(b."LASTNAME")) AND
c.TITLE="MR"
B. FIELD1: SIZEOF(TRIM(c."LASTNAME"))>= SIZEOF(TRIM(c."LASTNAME")) AND
c.TITLE="MR"
C. FIELD1: SIZEOF(TRIM(c."LASTNAME"))>= SIZEOF(TRIM(b."LASTNAME")) AND
b.TITLE="MR"
D. FIELD1: SIZEOF(TRIM(c."LASTNAME"))>= SIZEOF(TRIM(b."LASTNAME")) AND
c.TITLE="MR"
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is DataStage/Quality Stage Administrator client used for?
A. Setting up project properties.
B. Scheduling jobs to execute.
C. Compiling all the jobs at once.
D. Exporting log messages for a job.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is TRUE regarding the use of Critical Fields.?
A. Critical Fields are used to identify fields that must agree in order for records to be linked.
B. Critical Fields do not have to match exactly.
C. Only critical fields of a record are used to calculate the composite weights of the record.
D. Critical Fields are fields with missing values.
Answer: A

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NO.4 In Standardization Rule Sets, classification table contains what?
A. Field name, data type, and position in record.
B. Class, token, and standard form.
C. Pattern of tokens, actions to execute, and the logic.
D. Token, standard form, class, and override rules.
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NO.5 Investigation of data using QualityStage is for _____________________
A. transforming the data from one data type to another.
B. discovering the actual values of missing data.
C. verifying the reliability of the data in the fields to be used as matching criteria.
D. identifying all the data sources for data consolidation.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C2010-939
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NO.1 Refer to the Exhibit.
This process should be defined as a long-running process, because the implementation contains:
A. a Snippet.
B. a Parallel flow.
C. a Wait activity.
D. a Repeat Until Loop activity.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Refer to the Exhibit.
As shown in the Exhibit, both modules of SolutionA reference the library, which is configured to be
deployed with the module.
If an integration developer exports SolutionA for command-line service deployment, the result is:If an
integration developer exports SolutionA for command-line service deployment, the result is:
A. one zip file containing the folders for the library and both modules.
B. two zip files, one for each module, containing the folders for the library and the module.
C. one enterprise archive containing the archives for the library, both modules, and a web application.
D. two enterprise archives, one for each module, containing the archives for the library, the module and a
web application.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A company is redesigning an existing business process. During implementation, the integration
developer realizes that the interface of an imported service is now different from the reference of the
business process. Which of the following is the BEST solution for supporting future releases?
A. Implement a bridge using a java component.
B. Implement an EJB that connects to both interfaces.
C. Use a data map to connect both interfaces.
D. Use a mediation flow to connect both interfaces.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Refer to the Exhibits.
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding this configuration?
A. Component1 and Component2 cannot have different implementation types.
B. Compile errors occur because there is no default component configured.
C. If MySelector is invoked on December 25, 2010, a runtime exception will occur.
D. A runtime exception will be thrown if Component2 is implemented as a business rule.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Refer to the Exhibit. The exhibit shows a portion of a process state view monitoring an Account
Verification process instance.
The Credit Check Service activity failed because the target service was unavailable due to a system crash.
Since this failure happened during testing, the integration developer decided to manually enter sample
output data so that the process can be resumed. Which of the following actions will BEST accomplish this
task?
A. Select the "Skip Activity" option on Credit Check Service from the process state view.
B. Select Credit Check Service, and then select Map Credit Checking Result as its target activity. Modify
the activity and resume.
C. Select the failed event associated with this process instance in the Failed Event Manager. Modify the
business object and then resubmit the event.
D. Select the failed event associated with this process instance in the Failed Event Manager. Modify the
business object and then resubmit the event.
E. Select the failed event associated with this process instance in the Failed Event Manager. Modify the
business object and then resubmit the event.
F. Select the "Jump to Another Activity" option on Credit Check Service, and then select Map Credit
Checking Result as the target activity. Select the "Force Complete Source Activity and Jump" option to
manipulate the output.
G. Select the "Jump to Another Activity" option on Credit Check Service, and then select Map Credit
Checking Result as the target activity. Select the "Force Complete Source Activity and Jump" option to
manipulate the output.
H. Select the "Jump to Another Activity" option on Credit Check Service, and then select Map Credit
Checking Result as the target activity. Select the "Force Complete Source Activity and Jump" option to
manipulate the output.
Answer: F,G,H

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NO.6 A bank implements a loan processing service, Module A, which invokes services provided by several
other SCA applications. During the integration testing, the developer finds a problem with the Module A.
Since the implementation is very complex, the developer decides to enable cross-component trace to
troubleshoot. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. The loan processing service, along with the associated modules have to be deployed onto the same
server.
B. All associated applications must be loaded in the current workspace in order for the cross-component
trace to work.
C. Cross-component trace can be enabled through the Server Logs view in the WebSphere Integration
Developer or from the administrative console.
D. If cross-component trace is enabled with data snapshot, the system captures the data sent in and
passed between SCA components in the WPRCSDB database.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Refer to the exhibit.
A developer using the interface in the exhibit is facing a requirements change - the start operation needs
to be a one-way operation that uses the existing inputs. Which of the following is the BEST way to make
the change?
A. Add a new one-way operation to the interface and ignore the existing operation.
B. Click on the operation name and choose "Alt+Shift+R" to refactor the operation.
C. Right-click on the operation and choose "Change to One Way Operation" from the context menu.
D. Delete the interface and create a new interface with the same name, namespace, and operation name
with a one-way operation.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following are TRUE regarding Service Component Architecture (SCA)?
A. Standard Java classes are used to store data.
B. Integration developers can concentrate more time on the details of the service implementation.
C. Without SCA, you must change application code to respond to service implementation changes.
D. SCA provides a single service component abstraction for services that may already be implemented as
business processes.
E. The service component definition is included in a file called <SERVICE_NAME>.SCDL that can have
zero or more interfaces associated with it.
Answer: C,D

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NO.1 Which feature does Advanced Campaign Management include?
A. unlimited messages
B. background colors
C. usage charts
D. ability to link campaigns together
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 Which PDF version does PDF/A-1b Output produce?
A. PDF version1.3
B. PDF version 1.4
C. PDF version 1.5
D. PDF version 1.6
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is an extension of the Postscript printer language.?
A. PDX
B. PCL
C. AFP
D. VIPP
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which features are included in High-Volume Delivery? (Select three.)
A. dynamic output file naming
B. multiple-up support
C. imposition
D. bundling
E. text box flow
F. unlimited page numbering
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 What capability is a prerequisite for the LiveWorkflow module?
A. some type of fulfillment
B. LiveDesign
C. some type of repository
D. Live Editor
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Implementing and Troubleshooting HP Wireless Networks
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NO.1 How do HP MSM products, which support the optimized WLAN architecture, forward client
traffic
onto the wired network?
A. The APs can forward traffic for the some VSCs directly onto the wired network, but forward
traffic tunneled or access-controlled VSCs to the controller.
B. The controller always forwards traffic onto the wired network, thereby simplifying management
and improving security.
C. While an individual AP must either forward all traffic locally or forward all traffic to the controller,
different APs can exhibit different behaviors based on the needs of the company.
D. The APs always forward traffic directly onto the wired network, thereby optimizing the traffic
flow.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A company wants to increase its security by adding its security by adding a wireless intrusion
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Protected Access (WPA) attacks. Which product would provide this extra layer of security?
A. HP Threat management Services z1 Module
B. HP RF Manager
C. HP TippingPoint IPS Platform
D. HP Intelligent management Center (IMC) with Endpoint Admission Defense (EAD)
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which TAP method requires the supplicant and the authentication server to mutually
authenticate
with digital certification?
A. EAP-SIM
B. EAR-TLS
C. AP-TTTS
D. EAP-PEAP
Answer: D

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administrator enables opportunistic key caching to support fast roaming. When the network
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How should the network administrator resolve this error?
A. By purchasing a premium mobility license for the controller, which will allow the controller to
support opportunistic key cashing with 802.1X.
B. By enabling 802.1X but leaving in WPA2 key source set to static so that both forms of
authentication are supported.
C. By enabling wireless mobility as an authentication method for meeting the fast roaming
requirements.
D. By enabling opportunistic key caching: this feature is not required for fast roaming in a VSC
such as this.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which statement accurately describes 802 11i Mixed Mode?
A. The AP sends all stations a TKIP group key.
B. The AP sends all stations both a TKIP and an AES group key.
C. The AP sends stations using TKIP a TKIP group key and stations using AES an AES group key
D. The AP sends all stations an AES group key
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-N28
Exam Name: Selling HP Fortify Security Assurance Solution
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NO.1 Which acronym represents an open framework that helps organizations formulate and
implement a strategy for software security that is tailored to the specific risks facing the
organization?
A. WASP
B. SAMM
C. ISACA
D. ISSA
Answer: B

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Reference:
http://www.opensamm.org/ (first para)

NO.2 In the Software Security Assurance Maturity Spectrum, which statement is true for the "Fortify
(Prevention)" phase?
A. The security team is responsible for application security, and the development team supports
their effort.
B. The development team is responsible for application security with little or no support from the
security team.
C. The security team is responsible for application security with little or no support from the
development team.
D. The development team shares responsibility for application security, and the security team
supports their effort.
Answer: A

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NO.3 In which stage of the development lifecycle does the implementation of an HP Fortify solution
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A. Development
B. Performance
C. Testing
D. Production
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are typical business drivers for HP Fortify solutions? (Select two.)
A. Suffered security breach
B. Compliance program
C. Reported performance issues
D. SLA improvement initiative
E. Cost reduction
Answer: B, E

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NO.5 What are elements of a reactive approach to application security?
A. Security testing is performed before deployment, and security gates are agreed upon (jointly
implemented) by the security and development teams.
B. Security testing is embedded into the SDLC, the security and the development teams work
together as a single team.
C. Security testing is performed in production by customers or ad-hoc testers, and the development
team is tasked with code fixes.
D. Security testing is
performed in production, and the operations team is responsible for security monitoring and code
fixes.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Where do the majority of security breaches happen today?
A. Network layer
B. Host layer
C. Application layer
D. Access layer
Answer: C

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Reference:
https://www.owasp.org/images/7 /7b/OWASP-Italy_Day_IV_Morana.pdf (slide 8, first bullet)

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Exam Code: Hp2-E30
Exam Name: HP BladeSystem Sales Consultant (2010)
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Exam Code: HP2-Z21
Exam Name: Planning and Designing HP Enterprise Networking
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Exam Code: HP0-D11
Exam Name: Designing HP Virtualization Solutions [2010]
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NO.1 LACCD is the largest community college district in the United States, educating more than 130,000
students at nine campuses spread throughout 36 cities in the greater Los Angeles area.
What are some of the business requirements that led LACCD to migrate from a distributed
desktop PC architecture to an HP Client Virtualization Solution? (Select two.)
A. Educational institutions like LACCD must meet a broad range of requirements defined by users.
B. LACCD was in the midst of a downsizing and consolidation initiative.
C. LACCD could dictate technology capabilities from the top down.
D. School administrators at LACCD use a wide variety of applications where security is essential.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 Which HP StorageWorks products or solutions provide virtualized scale-up storage? (Select two.)
A. X9000 Network Storage Systems
B. HPStorageWorks 4400 Scalable NAS File Services
C. X5000 Storage Systems
D. P4000 SAN Solutions
E. Enterprise Virtual Array (EVA)
Answer: B,E

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NO.3 An EVA solution, currently managed by an Array-Based Management (ABM), will be expanded to a
Continuous Access solution. Which prerequisite must be met in order to implement the solution?
A. register SVSP Continuous Access licenses inCommandView EVA
B. install HP Insight Remote Support Standard on physical server
C. register Business Copy licenses in CommandView EVA
D. switchCommandView EVA to Server-Based Management (SBM)
Answer: D

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NO.4 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Product benefits often connect directly to customer business requirements that
represent opportunities for virtualization. Some examples of this include such things as accelerating
growth, reducing costs, lessening risk, and improving manageability and security.
Match each requirement to the way that virtualization helps a business achieve it.
Answer:

NO.5 What are indications that a business needs virtualization? (Select two.)
A. applications and business services not being delivered on time
B. IT operations that are minimally impacted by business fluctuations
C. under-utilized IT infrastructure
D. reductions in maintenance windows
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: HP0-J42
Exam Name: Introduction to HP SANs
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Exam Code: HP0-J39
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing HP P4000 SAN Solutions
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NO.1 How does the HP P4000 SAN solution allow aggregate application performance to be increased when
capacity is added?
A. Capacity and performance are adjusted on a linear scale.
B. Application priority can be adjusted.
C. Capacity and performance are dynamically adjusted to maintain balance.
D. Capacity and performance are balanced through the configuration of expansion modules.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which benefit does a virtual IP load balancing (VIPLB) initiator provide?
A. directsiSCSI communication to the least busy storage module
B. supports simultaneousiSCSI communication with multiple storage modules
C. selects the next storage module in the list foriSCSI communication
D. prefers the fastest connection foriSCSI communication
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statements about HP P4000 SAN Network RAID levels are correct? (Select three.)
A. Copies are located on different clusters.
B. Redundant copies of blocks reside on different storage nodes.
C. Performance improves as the number of copies increases.
D. Up to four copies can be created.
E. The Network RAID level is defined per storage node.
F. The number of storage nodes in the cluster can limit the Network RAID level.
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.4 What are the correct steps to create a remote copy on a P4000 G2?
A. Create the remote volume and link it to the primary volume, copy the data.
B. Create the primary volume, create the remote volume and link it to the primary volume, copy the data.
C. Create the remote volume andsnapshot, link the primary volume to the remote snapshot, copy the
data.
D. Create the primary snapshot, create the remote volume and snapshot, link it to the primary
snapshot,copy the data.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button. Which network protocol should be enabled when using ProCurve switches in an
iSCSI storage network?
A. Mesh Protocol
B. Simple Loop Prevention Protocol
C. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol
D. Point-to-Point Protocol
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which HBA and iSCSI initiator combination does the iSCSI protocol support? (Select two.)
A. iSCSI HBA with TCP offload engine (TOE)
B. softwareiSCSI initiator with Fibre Channel HBA
C. softwareiSCSI initiator with InfiniBand HBA
D. iSCSI Fibre Channel HBA with TCP TOE software iSCSI initiator
E. softwareiSCSI initiator with NIC
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 Which operating systems does the HP P4000 SAN solution support? (Select three.)
A. Solaris 9
B. OS X Leopard 10.5.5
C. HP OpenVMS 8.3
D. Novell NetWare 6.5
E. SUSE Linux Enterprise Server 10
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.8 Which statements about remote copies are correct? (Select two.)
A. Remote copiescan not be mounted.
B. Remote copies are always thin provisioned.
C. Remote copies are asynchronous replicas of a volume.
D. Remote copies can be synchronous and asynchronous.
E. Remote copies are asynchronous replicas between different clusters.
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: HP2-E39
Exam Name: Selling HP Converged Infrastruture Solutions
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Exam Code: HP0-Y19
Exam Name: ProCurve Accelerated ASE Mobility
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Exam Code: HP2-N36
Exam Name: HP Vertica Solutions [2012]
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NO.1 Which HP array is well known for reducing storage administration time by 90%?
A. P9500 Disk Array
B. 3PAR Storage
C. Enterprise Virtual Array
D. P4000SAN
Answer: B

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NO.2 DRAG DROP
Arrange the boxes in order to build the CI-MM five stages of maturity.
Answer:

NO.3 .HP's StoreOnce D2D backup system offers which significant advantages over traditional tape solutions?
(Select two.)
A. Acts as a long term archive for infrequently accessed data
B. Offers huge savings in tape media and tape drive costs
C. Allows media to be moved offsite to 3rd party service providers
D. Provides faster backup and recovery windows
E. Provides job security for back-up administrators.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 If your customer needs to improve connectivity and bandwidth allocation online, which HP technology
would you recommend.?
A. HP Virtual Request Pools
B. HP Matrix Operating Environment
C. HP Data Center Smart Grid
D. HP FlexFabric Network
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the biggest difference between HP Critical Advantage and HP Proactive Select?
A. Critical Advantage includes hardware and software, while Proactive Select only includes hardware.
B. Critical Advantage is integrated with Mission-Critical Partnership, while Proactive Select is not.
C. Critical Advantage includes reactive support, while Proactive Select does not.
D. Proactive Select includes 24x7 Access to HP technical experts, while Critical Advantage does not.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which business benefit will your customers realize by using HP Smart Grid technology?
A. Customers can run multiple protocols and make changes without having to bring down their servers.
B. Customers can use the same architecture to run and manage multiple workloads across servers,
storage and networking.
C. Customers can extend the life of their data centers while using much less power and cooling.
D. Customers can decrease the time-to-delivery of technology services from months to hours.
Answer: C

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NO.7 The Converged Infrastructure Maturity Model process helps to evaluate your customer's IT organization
by investigating the resources used to plan, manage, and improve the delivery of IT services to their
business. Which domain is this?
A. Technology and Architecture
B. Culture and Staff
C. Demand, Supply and IT Governance
D. Management Tools and Processes
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the benefit to both you and your customer of using the Converged Infrastructure Maturity Model
(CI-MM)?
A. It gives the customer access to an exclusive set of benchmarks and best practices of their competitors
derived from primary research conducted by the HP Sales and Marketing Division.
B. It allows you to identify key pain points and top IT infrastructure gaps, enabling you to build an
actionable plan toward a Converged Infrastructure.
C. It provides video demonstrations that outline specific customer benefits that can be derived when the
solution is deployed in an actual customer environment.
D. It is a self-assessment tool that the customer can use as a replacement for extensive consulting
engagements.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-D13
Exam Name: Technical Introduction to the HP Enterprise Portfolio,Rev. 11.41
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Exam Code: HP0-Y42
Exam Name: Implementing HP TippingPoint Solutions
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Exam Code: HP0-J17
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing the HP StorageWorks EVA4400
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NO.1 What is an interconnect requirement for the EVA4400?
A. The SAN switch must run at 2Gb/s or greater.
B. All components in the SAN must run at 4Gb/s.
C. The direct connected switch must run at 4Gb/s.
D. All components in the SAN must run at 2Gb/s or greater.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which user group membership enables the user to access Command View EVA?
A. EVA Admin
B. HP Manager
C. SAN Administrator
D. HP Storage Admin
Answer: D

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NO.3 What does the Dynamic Capacity Management (DCM) of an EVA storage system provide?
A. maximum capacity utilization to the EVA
B. load balancing on the host ports of an EVA
C. optimized bandwidth utilization during replication
D. minimized space requirement during rebuild operation
Answer: A

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NO.4 When is the first disk group (default disk group) created?
A. after storage system initialization
B. during the initialization of the storage system
C. during the installation of Command View EVA
D. manually, before the system can be initialized
Answer: B

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NO.5 What can you use to provide a Fibre Channel SAN extension over an IP network in an EVA4400 CA
solution?
A. MPX110 IP Distance Gateway
B. IP connector on the controllers
C. only an 8Gb Fibre Channel switch
D. any Fibre Channel switch, provided it has an extended fabric license
Answer: A

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NO.6 Where must the multipath software be installed to enable multipathing?
A. on all hosts in the SAN
B. on the storage system
C. on the dedicated management server
D. on all hosts that require multipath access to the EVA
Answer: D

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NO.7 How does the name of an uninitialized system show in Command View EVA?
A. serial number
B. uninitialized system
C. WWN of the storage system
D. WWN of FFFF-FFFF-FFFF-FFFF
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which SMB customer business needs are best addressed by the EVA4400?
A. growing budgets, high availability, rapid data growth
B. shrinking budgets, disaster tolerance, rapid data growth
C. easy configuration, non-stop performance, growing budgets
D. ease of management, shrinking budgets, non-stop performance
Answer: B

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