2014年5月30日星期五

SY0-301 Real Dumps, SG1-001 Bootcamp, HT0-101 Real Exams

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Exam Code: SY0-301
Exam Name: Security+ Certification Exam 2011 version
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Exam Code: SG1-001
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Exam Code: HT0-101
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NO.1 Which of the following is the BEST solution to securely administer remote servers?
A. SCP
B. SSH
C. Telnet
D. SFTP
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is similar to a smurf attack, but uses UDP instead to ICMP?
A. X-Mas attack
B. Fraggle attack
C. Vishing
D. Man-in-the-middle attack
Answer: B

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NO.3 Pete, a security administrator, wants to secure remote telnet services and decides to use the services
over SSH. Which of the following ports should Pete allow on the firewall by default?
A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 25
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following encrypts the body of a packet, rather than just the password, while sending
information?
A. LDAP
B. TACACS+
C. ACLs
D. RADIUS
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following is a valid server-role in a Kerberos authentication system?
A. Token issuing system
B. Security assertion server
C. Authentication agent
D. Ticket granting server
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following accurately describes the STRONGEST multifactor authentication?
A. Something you are, something you have
B. Something you have, something you know
C. Something you are near to, something you have
D. Something you have, someone you know
Answer: A

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NO.7 A company is performing internal security audits after a recent exploitation on one of their proprietary
applications. Sara, the security auditor, is given the workstation with limited documentation regarding the
application installed for the audit. Which of the following types of testing methods is this?
A. Sandbox
B. White box
C. Black box
D. Gray box
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following is an example of a false negative?
A. The IDS does not identify a buffer overflow
B. Anti-virus identifies a benign application as malware.
C. Anti-virus protection interferes with the normal operation of an application.
D. A user account is locked out after the user mistypes the password too many times.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: CD0-001
Exam Name: CompTIA CDIA+ Certification Exam
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Exam Code: 220-701
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Exam Code: JK0-802
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NO.1 An end-user wants a user interface that is easy to personalize, will allow for new applications
to be added, and will allow for inter-application communication. Which of the following interfaces
will meet these requirements?
A. A portal
B. A browser
C. A customer Windows client
D. A Java client written with JavaServer Pages (JSP)
Answer: A

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NO.2 The is implementing a document imaging system and making the images available via the
Internet.
Which of the following issues is the most important security consideration?
A. User profiling
B. Virus protection
C. Firewall configuration
D. Disaster recover and data restoration
Answer: C

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NO.3 A company needs to scan 5,000 three-page documents every Monday. Each document is 65
KB in size. What is the annual storage requirement?
A. 8.2 MB
B. 16.5 MB
C. 16.1 GB
D. 32.5 GB
Answer: C

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NO.4 A title company wishes to scope out its residential mortgage packaging business process. All of
the mortgage packets are internally received at a central office. How should a consultant next
proceed in the identification phase?
A. Locate key stakeholder groups and observe the workflow in action
B. Conduct focus groups with members of each department
C. Develop a detailed process workflow and refer back to all the participating decision makers
D. Conduct an electronic survey to all the customers employees documenting the responses in a
project database
Answer: A

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NO.5 The needs to send scanned forms to various remote offices. They receive and scan 100 forms
a day.
Approximately how long would it take to transmit 100 50KB images using a 56Kbps modem
assuming a 10% throughput reduction for overhead?
A. 8 minutes
B. 13 minutes
C. 18 minutes
D. 26 minutes
Answer: B

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NO.6 A company needs to store 500 two-page documents every day. Each document is 50 KB. What
storage capacity is required for one month, assuming 21.5 days per month?
A. 525 MB
B. 651 MB
C. 1.05 GB
D. 5.25 GB
Answer: A

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NO.7 In a Request For Proposal (RFP) for an Electronic Document Management (EDM) solution, the
customer is requiring a total cost for all goods and services. This model is known as:
A. fixed price.
B. time and materials.
C. time and materials with travel expenses.
D. mixed mode pricing.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A change control plan is concerned with all of the following EXCEPT:
A. responding to the factors that create scope change.
B. determining that a scope change has occurred.
C. documenting baseline project plan assumptions.
D. managing the actual modifications when and if any occur.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: FC0-GR1
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Exam Code: HT0-102
Exam Name: HTI+ Systems Infrastructure and Integration
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Exam Code: PD0-001
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NO.1 Which of the following technologies allows a single piece of hardware to host multiple operating
systems simultaneously?
A. Virtualization
B. SMTP servers
C. ThinNet clients
D. Terminal servers
Answer: A

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NO.2 A large company has over 500 computers that currently stay powered on indefinitely. None of the
systems are used after the company closes at 5 p.m. Which of the following would be the MOST effective
way for the company to save on electricity usage?
A. Set the computers for automatic log-off after one hour of inactivity.
B. Institute a policy of either shutdown or sleep mode an hour after close.
C. Turn on the Wake on LAN functionality for all computers.
D. Schedule all patching to be done during work hours.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following technologies can save server space and cooling requirements?
A. Energy star ratings
B. Active solar panels
C. Network storage array
D. Blade servers
Answer: D

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NO.4 A large company would like to roll out thin clients to all retail terminals on its next upgrade. Which of
the following are potential risks of this IT plan?
A. Power consumption; thin clients use more energy than comparable workstations and therefore have a
larger energy footprint.
B. Single point of failure; if the thin client server goes down all machines are without functionality.
C. Centralized administration; IT staff cannot rely on localized group policy settings.
D. High cost of terminals; compared to traditional workstations, thin clients are very expensive and require
more maintenance.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following will allow multiple operating systems to run on one workstation?
A. FireWire
B. KVM
C. Virtualization
D. Terminal servers
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is the recommended disposal method for used computers?
A. Trash can
B. Burial
C. Recycling center
D. Storage shed
Answer: C

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NO.7 A small business currently has four separate servers, three of which perform low-overhead tasks with
small memory footprints. How could the company BEST reduce power consumption among these four
servers, while not sacrificing functionality?
A. Enable each server's Cool 'n' Quiet and/or SpeedStep functionality so that processing power is
conserved.
B. Enforce auto-shutdown routines on all four servers for after-hours power saving while the office is
closed.
C. Consolidate the four servers onto the best two, combining them logically by tasks and memory
consumption.
D. Consolidate the four servers onto the most powerful machine using virtualization.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A small business currently has a server room with a large cooling system that is appropriate for its size.
The location of the server room is the top level of a building. The server room is filled with incandescent
lighting that needs to continuously stay on for security purposes. Which of the following would be the
MOST cost-effective way for the company to reduce the server rooms energy footprint?
A. Replace all incandescent lighting with energy saving neon lighting.
B. Set an auto-shutoff policy for all the lights in the room to reduce energy consumption after hours.
C. Replace all incandescent lighting with energy saving fluorescent lighting.
D. Consolidate server systems into a lower number of racks, centralizing airflow and cooling in the room.
Answer: C

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A.Cognos Viewer
B.Cognos Search
C.Cognos Navigator
D.Cognos Extended Applications
Answer:C

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NO.2 What can an administrator create to ensure that multiple users do not have to enter database
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A.Signon
B.Single signon
C.Collation sequence
D.Connection sequence
Answer:A

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NO.3 When an administrator exports entries from Cognos 8, what file gets created?
A.Content store file
B.Object extract file
C.Deployment archive file
D.Configuration export file
Answer:C

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NO.4 From within Cognos Connection, what must an administrator deploy to move an entire Cognos 8
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A.Content store
B.Public Folders
C.Cognos namespace
D.Content manager
Answer:A

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NO.5 The Report Upgrade task in Cognos Connection provides options for upgrading report
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A. Social engineering
B. Identity exploitation
C. Information probing
D. Intellectual deception
Answer:A

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NO.2 Rosa wants to position a paragraph 100 pixels below the top of the HTML document, and 100 pixels
from its left margin. Which styles should she use?
A. top: 100px; left: 100px
B. position: relative; top: 100px; left: 100px
C. position: absolute;top: 100px;left: 100px
D. position: absolute;margin-top: 100px;margin-left: 100px
Answer: C

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NO.3 Image slicing involves:
A. selecting rectangular sections of a larger graphic to be divided into smaller images during export.
B. creating an animated GIF file from a single large image file to decrease perceived download time.
C. merging several small image files into a single large image file to simplify placement on the Web page.
D. selecting sections of a single image and saving them as separate JPG files in a specially created folder.
Answer:A

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NO.4 Consuela is updating her company's Web site. She wants to add an image that is 1,414 pixels by 724
pixels. Her site audience generally uses a monitor resolution of 1024x768. Using Fireworks, how can she
adjust the image to fit the users' monitors?
A. Resample the image to adjust the print size.
B. Resample the image to increase the resolution.
C. Resample the image to decrease the color depth.
D. Resample the image to decrease the pixel dimensions.
Answer: D

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NO.5 User feedback can be evaluated in many ways. Which of the following methods is more quantitative
than direct user feedback, and will provide indirect feedback from the majority of users who do not
respond?
A. User surveys
B. Site server logs
C. Online e-mail links
D. Opt-in bulk mail services
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following is an example of structural markup?
A. <b />Summary
B. <title>Summary</title>
C. <font size=6 />Summary
D. <center>Summary</center>
Answer: B

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NO.7 Tom wants to display <li> list elements in a row. What should he add to his style sheet?
A. li {layout:inline}
B. li {display:inline}
C. li {display:block}
D. ul {display:inline}
Answer: B

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NO.8 Susan is creating some additional images for her customer's Web site. One image will be used
repeatedly on site pages. However, in order to support the site's topic-specific color scheme, she wants
one shape in the image's background to be a different color on each page. What is the best way for Susan
to accomplish this task?
A. Create the image using layers for its different components.
B. Create the image using series for its different components.
C. Create the image using pages for its different components.
D. Create the image using frames for its different components.
Answer:A

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NO.1 Consider the following code block:BEGIN {print ("Jan ");} BEGIN {print ("Feb ");} END {print ("Mar ");}
END {print ("Apr ");} Print ("May "); What is the result of this code block?
A. Jan Feb May Apr Mar
B. Jan Feb Mar Apr May
C. Mar Apr May Jan Feb
D. May Jan Feb Mar Apr
Answer:A

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NO.2 Consider the following statement: $buffer = a string; Also consider that a file named test.txt contains the
following line of text:One line of test text.What is the output of the following lines of code? $file = "test.txt";
open (OUT, "<$file") || (die "cannot open $file: $!"); read(OUT, $buffer, 15, 4); print $buffer;
A. a strOne line of test
B. a stOne line of tes
C. a strOne line of tes
D. a stOne line of test
Answer: B

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NO.3 Consider the following program code:
%hash = (small => 8oz, medium => 16oz, large => 32oz); @keys = sort(keys(%hash)); for ($i = 0; $i < 3;
$i++) {
print($hash{$keys[$i]}\n); } What is the result of executing this program code?
A. The code will fail at line 1 because a hash cannot contain both numeric and string data.
B. The code will execute without error but will output nothing.
C. The code will output the following: 32oz 16oz 8oz
D. The code will output the following: large mediumsmall
Answer: C

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NO.4 Consider the program code in the attached exhibit. What is the result of executing this program code?
A. The code will output the following: 20 100 Apple Grapefruit Orange
B. The code will output the following: Apple Grapefruit Orange 20 100
C. The code will output the following: 100 20 Apple Grapefruit Orange
D. The code will output the following: Orange Grapefruit Apple 100 20
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which statement will print the capital attribute of the $kansas object?
A. print ("capital"=>$kansas);
B. print {$kansas}=>(capital);
C. print (capital)<={$kansas};
D. print $kansas->{"capital"};
Answer: D

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NO.6 Consider the following program code:$x = 10;LOOP: while ($x < 15) {
print ($x ); if ($x >= 14 && $x <= 20) {
$x += 2;
redo LOOP; } else {
$x++; } What is the result of executing this program code?
A. The code will output the following: 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 1819
B. The code will output the following: 10 11 12 13 14 16 18 2022
C. The code will output the following: 10 11 12 13 14 16 18 20
D. The code will output the following: 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 1718 19 20
Answer: B

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NO.7 Consider the following lines of code: @array1 = ("apples", "oranges", "pears", "plums"); foreach
(@array1) {print "$_\n"};What is the result of these lines of code?
A. applesorangespearsplums
B. apples oranges pears plums
C. apples
D. apples oranges pears plums
Answer: D

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NO.8 Consider the following program code:@array = (10, Masami, 10..13, Niklas); for ($i = 1; $i < $#array;
$i++) {
print($array[$i] ); } What is the result of executing this program code?
A. The code will output the following: Masami 10 11 12 13
B. The code will output the following: 10 Masami 10 11 12 13
C. The code will output the following: 10 Masami 11 12 13 Niklas
D. The code will output the following: Masami 10 11 12 13 Niklas
Answer:A

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2014年5月29日星期四

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NO.1 What four steps must be taken to unit test a connector within a flow when the target interface/system is
not yet available? (Choose Four)
A. Create a Simulation activity
B. Set the connector to simulate in the Simulation data instance and specify the activity
C. Use Tracer and set a breakpoint
D. Define a Connect Simulation instance
E. Test the flow with simulation enabled
F. Create a new Integrator task
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.2 A customer implementation necessitates the usage of Message-driven beans. Which of these
platforms can the solution be deployed on? (Choose Two)
A. JBoss (EAR Deployment)
B. WebLogic (WAR Deployment)
C. WebSphere (EAR Deployment)
D. Tomcat (WAR Deployment)
E. All of the above
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 PegaRULES is installed on a multi-node system, and a copy of the various caches is stored on each
node. Each of these nodes must be updated with rule changes. Which functionality in PRPC manages the
update process? (Choose One)
A. Node-Pulse
B. Rule Cache
C. System-Update
D. System-Pulse
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which statement is true regarding how locking works with covers? (Choose One)
A. By default, the cover does not get locked when you open a covered object, but this is configurable
B. By default, the cover is locked when you open a covered object, but this is configurable
C. The cover must always be locked when working on the cover or one of its covered work objects
because updates occur on the cover throughout processing of the covered work objects
D. Cover object locking is identical to that of other work objects, in that it is only locked when it is opened
by a requestor
Answer: B

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NO.5 What does the system pulse do? (Choose Three)
A. It is used by PRPC to synchronize changes to the Data-Agent-Schedule instances whenever a
Rule-Agent-Queue instance is modified
B. It invalidates rule caches on a per node basis using entries in the pr_sys_updatescache table
C. It processes changes to the Lucene indexes that support full text searches
D. It synchronizes the lookup list cache deletions and any rule-file-deletes
E. It is used by PRPC to send out information to PAL on a weekly basis so that performance analysis can
be performed over a period of time
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.6 A PRPC installation has 3 nodes. An Agent rule has a single agent listed which takes data from an
external system. It would cause contention issues if it ran on more than one node. What is the
recommended way to ensure the agent only runs in one cluster? (Choose One)
A. Delete the Agent schedule on two nodes
B. Disable the Agent schedule on two of the nodes, either from the Agent Schedule rule form or using the
System Management Application
C. Disable the master agent on two nodes
D. In your Agent activity call a decision table to verify host name of the system (application)
Answer: B

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NO.7 What does the rollback method do? (Choose Two)
A. Cancels/Withdraws any pending obj-save and obj-delete methods
B. Rollback is not supported by PRPC when using a WAR deployment. The only way you can do a
rollback is by using the compensating actions method
C. Rollback is a way to rollback an object to a previous state using the History instance for a work object
D. Rolls back the deferred stack of operations for the specified page
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 Which of the following are virtual memory based caches? (Choose Three)
A. Rule Cache
B. Rules Assembly Cache
C. Rule Resolution Cache
D. Lookup List Cache
E. Static Content Cache
F. Dictionary Cache
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.1 When is it appropriate to use a spin-off? (Choose One)
A. When you wish to run calculations in a separate thread from the current process
B. When you wish to make a long-running SOAP service call asynchronously
C. When you wish to start another flow execution while continuing down the current process path
D. When you wish to call multiple connector rules concurrently
Answer: C

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NO.2 You have been asked to build a human resources application that facilitates the work required
to
support new hires. For each new hire, multiple tasks must be done, such as "Acquire Computer"
and "Setup Payroll". You are having trouble deciding if each of these tasks should be represented
as separate assignments in the same case, or separate sub-cases. Which of the following
requirements will help you decide on the approach? (Choose Two)
A. It must be possible for "Acquire Computer" and "Setup Payroll" to be assigned to different
operators at the same time
B. It must be possible for the completion of one task to be independent from the other
C. It must be possible to edit fields for "Acquire Computer" and "Setup Payroll" at the same time
D. It must be possible to configure security differently; those who can open "Acquire Computer"
must not be able to open "Setup Payroll"
E. "Acquire Computer" and "Setup Payroll" require the capability to be reopened independently
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 A work type MyCo-FW-PurchaseApp-Work-Request has a PageList property .LineItems of class
MyCo-FW-PurchaseApp-Data-Item.
Another work type, MyCo-FW-PurchaseApp-Work-Order has a PageList property .ItemsForVendor
of class MyCo-FW-PurchaseApp-Data-Item.
An item has a calculation .TotalPrice = .Quantity * .UnitPrice.
The application is experiencing behavior where the TotalPrice is calculating correctly for Requests
but not for Orders. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this issue? (Choose
One)
A. The expression is likely defined as a context-sensitive expression ("only when the top level
page is of the applies to class")
B. The expression is likely defined as backward chaining
C. The expression is likely defined as a context-free expression ("regardless of any page it is
contained in")
D. The expression is likely defined as forward chaining
Answer: A

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NO.4 An application administrator has been sent a number of complaints that after nightly server
restarts the PRPC application is slow in the early morning. Which of the following actions can be
used to mitigate this issue? (Choose One)
A. Enable Assembly Avoidance
B. Restart System Pulse
C. Configure and execute Static Assembler
D. Increase the size of the Rule Cache
Answer: C

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NO.5 A rule is shown in the Final Conflicts report after doing an upgrade. Which of the following
describe what could be done to resolve the conflict? (Choose Two)
A. The rule could be marked Final
B. The rule could be deleted or Withdrawn so that the standard version of the rule is executed
C. Do a SaveAs on the conflicting rule to a new name and update references to this new rule
D. The rule could be copied into the production RuleSet
E. The corresponding RuleSet could be locked
F. The rule could be copied into a more specific class
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: CTAL-TM_Syll2012
Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager [Syllabus 2012]
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Exam Code: CTFL_001
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NO.1 Which of the following is an example of the test closure activity indicated as "lessons learned"?
K2 1 credit
A. Archive all the test results of the acceptance testing phase
B. Deliver a list of the open defects of a software product released into production to the service
desk team
C. Participate in a meeting at the end of a project aimed at better managing the events and
problems of future projects
D. Deliver an automated regression test suite, used during the system test phase of a software
product released into production, to the team responsible for maintenance testing
Answer: C

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NO.2 Assume you are the Test Manager for a new software release of an e-commerce application.
The server farm consists of six servers providing different capabilities. Each capability is provided
through a set of web services.
The requirements specification document contains several SLAs
(Service Level Agreements) like the following:
SLA-001: 99.5 percent of all transactions shall have a response time less than five seconds under a
load of up-to 5000 concurrent users
The main objective is to assure that all the SLAs specified in the requirements specification
document will be met before system release. You decide to apply a risk-based testing strategy and
an early risk analysis confirms that performance is high risk. You can count on a well-written
requirements specification and on a model of the system behavior under various load levels
produced by the system architect.
Which of the following test activities would you expect to be the less important ones to achieve the
test objectives in this scenario?
K4 3 credits
A. Perform unit performance testing for each single web service
B. Monitor the SLAs after the system has been released into the production environment
C. Perform system performance testing, consisting of several performance testing sessions, to verify
if all the SLAs have been met
D. Perform static performance testing by reviewing the architectural model of the system under
various load levels
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are the Test Manager for a project to develop a client-server application that allows wine
vendors to order custom-assorted packages of wines of several winemakers to sell special packages
in their wine shops.
You decide to apply a blended risk-based and reactive testing strategy. Below the exit criteria for the
system testinG. EXCR1- Each "critical" quality risk item must be covered by at least one test
condition EXCR2- Each "critical" requirement must be covered by at least one test condition
The following are the "critical" requirements of the application:
REQ-SEL-1. The application shall allow the user to order only one package at a time
REQ-SEL-2. The application shall allow the user to select between four different packages (2bottles,
6-bottles, 12-bottles, 15-bottles)
REQ-SEL-3. The application shall allow the user to order a package containing at least 1 bottle and
no more bottles than the package size. No error messages shall be displayed if the user selects a
valid number of bottles (at least 1 bottle and no more than the package size)
REQ-SEL-4. The application shall display an error message "Invalid number of bottles" if an invalid
number of bottles is selected by the user (zero bottles or a number higher than the package size)
REQ-PAY-1. The application shall allow the user to pay with the three accepted credit cards (Visa,
MasterCard, American Express)
REQ-PAY-2. The application shall display an error message "Invalid credit card" if invalid credit card
data are given by the user
QUSTION NO: 11 The following is the unique "critical" quality risk item that has been identified:
CR-RSK-1. The GUI of the application might accept non-integer values for the input field designed
to get the number of bottles from the user
Test analysis for system testing has just begun and the following test conditions have been identifieD.
TC-SEL-2. Test the selection of the package sizes
TC-SEL-4. Test wrong numbers of bottles for an order TC-CR-RSK-1. Test the accepted values from
the input field designed to get the number of bottles from the user
Assume that you have used traceability to determine the logical test cases that cover all the
requirements and the single risk item identified in that scenario.
Which of the following is a positive logical test that is complete and correct, and covers the
REQSEL-4 requirement?
K3 2 credits
A. Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 5 bottles; verify that no error messages are
displayed
B. Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 7 bottles; verify that no error messages are displayed
C. Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 7 bottles; verify that the "Invalid number of bottles"
message is displayed
D. Select a 6-bottles package, then try to insert 7 bottles
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following statements describing the consequences of specifying test conditions
at a detailed level is NOT true?
K2 1 credit
A. In an environment where the test basis is continuously changing, it is recommended to specify
test conditions at a detailed level in order to achieve a better maintainability
B. The specification of test conditions at a detailed level can be effective when no formal
requirements or other development work products are available
C. The specification of test conditions at a detailed level can require the implementation of an
adequate level of formality across the team
D. For system testing, the specification of test conditions at a detailed level, carried out early in the
project as soon as the test basis is established, can contribute to defect prevention
Answer: A

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NO.5 The following are the exit criteria described in the test plan of a software product:
EX1. The test suite for the product must ensure that at least each quality risk item is covered by at
least one test case (a quality risk item can be covered by more test cases).
EX2. All test cases in the test suite must be run during the execution phase.
EX3. Defects are classified into two categories: "C" (critical defect) and "NC" (non-critical defect). No
known C defects shall exist in the product at the end of the test execution phase.
Which of the following information is useless when the specified exit criteria is evaluated?
K2 1 credit
A. A traceability matrix showing the relationships between the product risk items and the test cases
B. A list of all the open defects with the associated classification information extracted from the
defect tracking system
C. A chart, showing the trend in the lag time from defect reporting to resolution, extracted from the
defect tracking system
D. The execution status of all the test cases extracted from the test management tool
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are the Test Manager for a project to develop a client-server application that allows wine
vendors to order custom-assorted packages of wines of several winemakers to sell special packages
in their wine shops.
You decide to apply a blended risk-based and reactive testing strategy. Below the exit criteria for the
system testinG.
EXCR1- Each "critical" quality risk item must be covered by at least one test condition
EXCR2- Each "critical" requirement must be covered by at least one test condition
The following are the "critical" requirements of the application:
REQ-SEL-1. The application shall allow the user to order only one package at a time
REQ-SEL-2. The application shall allow the user to select between four different packages (2bottles,
6-bottles, 12-bottles, 15-bottles)
REQ-SEL-3. The application shall allow the user to order a package containing at least 1 bottle and
no more bottles than the package size. No error messages shall be displayed if the user selects a
valid number of bottles (at least 1 bottle and no more than the package size)
REQ-SEL-4. The application shall display an error message "Invalid number of bottles" if an invalid
number of bottles is selected by the user (zero bottles or a number higher than the package size)
REQ-PAY-1. The application shall allow the user to pay with the three accepted credit cards (Visa,
MasterCard, American Express)
REQ-PAY-2. The application shall display an error message "Invalid credit card" if invalid credit card
data are given by the user
The following is the unique "critical" quality risk item that has been identified:
CR-RSK-1. The GUI of the application might accept non-integer values for the input field designed to
get the number of bottles from the user Test analysis for system testing has just begun and the
following test conditions have been identified.
TC-SEL-2. Test the selection of the package sizes
TC-SEL-4. Test wrong numbers of bottles for an order
TC-CR-RSK-1. Test the accepted values from the input field designed to get the number of bottles
from the user
What is the MINIMUM number of test conditions that must be added to fulfill both the EXCR1 and
EXCR2 exit criteria?
K3 2 credits
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: A

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NO.7 The following are the requirements identified as "critical":
REQ-SEL-001. The user shall be able to combine all the three products with all the four durations to
define an item to purchase
REQ-SEL-002. The user shall be able to add a maximum of six different items to the shopping cart
REQ-PUR-001. The user shall be able to purchase all the items in the shopping cart using a credit
voucher
REQ-PUR-002. The user shall be able to purchase all the items in the shopping cart using the
available credit already charged on the smartcard
REQ-PUR-003. The user shall be able to purchase all the items in the shopping cart using all the
accepted credit cards (Visa, MasterCard and Great Wall Card)
REG-LOGO-001. The user shall be able to logout (by clicking the logout button) from both the
"select" and "purchase" pages going back to the "browse" page (anonymous navigation)
Moreover the following quality risk item has been identified as "critical":
QR-P1. The web customer portal might not be able to provide the expected response time (less than
10 sec) for the purchase transactions under a load of up-to 1000 concurrent users
Test analysis for system testing has just begun and the following test conditions have been identifieD.
TC-SEL-01. Test the combinations of products and durations to define an item to purchase
TC-SEL-02. Test the maximum number of items, which can be added to the shopping cart
TC-PUR-01. Test the purchase of an item
TC-PUR-02. Test the purchase of an item with the credit charged on the smartcard
What is the MINIMUM number of test conditions that must be added to fulfill both the EXCR1 and
EXCR2 exit criteria?
K3 2 credits
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

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NO.8 Consider an information system of a Pay-Tv company based on a SOA architecture.
The integrated system currently consists of three core systems:
-a CRM (Customer Relationship Management) system
-a BRM (Billing and Revenue Management) system
-a CAS (Conditional Access System) system all of them communicating with SOA Middleware.
You have been asked to manage the testing activities for the integration of two additional
off-theshelf systems from two different vendors: a SMS (Short Message Service) server and an IVR
(Interactive Voice Response) system.
Assume that there is a high likelihood that the two off-the-shelf systems will be low-quality and that
you have a clear proof that the testing performed by the two vendors on their systems has been
unsystematic and unprofessional. This obviously leads to higher quality risk for the overall
integrated system.
You are the Test Manager of this project. Your main goal is to plan for testing activities to mitigate
this risk.
Which of the following answers best describes the test activities (assuming it is possible to perform
all of them) you should plan for?
K4 3 credits
A. You should plan for an informal and minimal acceptance test of the two off-the-shelf systems and
then a single end-to-end test of the overall integrated system
B. You should directly plan for a single end-to-end test focused on end-to-end tests of the overall
integrated system without an acceptance test of the two off-the-shelf systems
C. You should plan for two levels: a system integration test and an end-to-end test of the overall
integrated system
D. You should plan for adequate re-testing of both the systems followed by a system integration test
and an end-to-end test of the overall integrated system
Answer: D

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Exam Code: MSC-431
Exam Name: Lean Six Sigma Black Belt
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Exam Code: MSC-122
Exam Name: Deploy WLAN Solutions
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Exam Code: MSC-121
Exam Name: Design WLan Solutions
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NO.1 You are a network design engineer and are assigned to provide an enterprise S02.1X/EAP solution to
secure your company's IEEE 802.11n WLAN. What networking protocol/service that provides centralized
Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) management for computers to connect and use
wireless network resources can be implemented?
A. Secure Shell (SSH)
B. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
C. Virtual Private Networking (VPN)
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) Passphrase
E. Remote Authentication DialinUser Service (RADIUS)
Answer: E

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NO.2 You have been assigned to design a new IEEE wireless LAN that will require six access points for both
coverage and capacity. Based on expected client device usage, it has been determined the
2.4 GHz ISM band will be the most appropriate for this deployment. Without taking any specific local
regulatory domain into consideration, how many channels are available for selection in the
2.4 GHz ISM band?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 11
D. 14
E. 23
Answer: D

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NO.3 The IEEE 802.lln amendment to the standard addresses several PHY layer enhancements. One of
these enhancements is "Channel Bonding" allowing for 40 MHz wide channels. Without taking any
specific local regulatory domain into consideration, what is the maximum number of non-overlapping 40
MHz wide channels that can exist in the 2.4 GHz ISM band.?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
E. 11
F. 20
Answer: A

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NO.4 XYZ Company is deploying a companywide Motorola Solutions wireless infrastructure. The following
list is a breakdown of XYZ Company facilities with the number of access points required for each location:
-Corporate HQ: 36 AP -Distribution Centers (3): 48 AP each -Warehouses (5): 34, 64, 28, 12, 20 AP
respectively -Satellite offices (25): 1-2 AP each. -Stores (1100): 3-4 AP each.
XYZ is looking for the most cost effective solution, while still being able to manage and configure the
system centrally. Which of the following would you recommend?
A. AP7131s at each location.
B. NX9000 at Corporate HQ and AP7131's at all locations.
C. NX9000 at Corporate HQ, RFS6000 and AP650 at locations with more than 24 AP's, AP6532 at
locations with less than 24 AP's.
D. 4 RFS7000 at Corporate HQ, RFS6000 and AP650 at locations with 24 or more AP's, AP6532 at
locations with less than 24 AP's.
E. NX9000 at Corporate HQ, RFS7000 and AP650 at locations with more than 24 AP's, AP7131 at
locations with up to 24 AP's.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following duplexing methods is used by the radios in Motorola's WLAN products?
A. Half-duplex
B. Full-duplex
C. Simplex
D. Half-duplex Tx / Full-duplex Rx
E. Full-duplex Tx / Ha If-duplex Rx
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are responsible for designing an 802.11n controller based wireless LAN for your organization
using independent access point technology, The Information Technology team has decided the wireless
LAN controllers should be installed on the core layer at the headquarters office location configured for
centralized forwarding. Which statements are true concerns with respect to this type of installation (select
TWO)?
A. S02.11n independent access points require the controller be installed at the network access layer only.
B. The WLAN controller at the core layer may be a bottleneck and limit scalability if not properly planned.
C. Network core layer deployments should always use 10 Gigabit (or faster) Ethernet components.
D. With centralized forwarding enabled all wireless traffic is tunneled to the WLAN controller that is
connected to the network core layer.
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 You are a computer network consultant at a small medical office and responsible for the design and
deployment of the IEEE 802.11b/g WLAN. Some of the users of the WLAN are complaining about the
performance of the network. You use a layer 2 WLAN analyzer to view the frames traversing the wireless
medium to see if you can determine the problem. After careful examination of the data recorded you
notice a significant amount of CTS-to-Self frames. What is a potential reason for the high number of these
frame types?
A. The access points are in OFDM only mode
B. The access points support Quality of Service
C. The access points are in HR/DSSS only mode
D. The access points are in ERP protection mode
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following situations would force a wireless client to renew its IP address?
A. Roaming between two BSSIDs assigned to the same VLAN
B. Roaming between controllers supporting the same VLANs
C. Roaming between two BSSIDs assigned to different VLANs
D. All of the above would force a client to renew its IP address
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which describe the motivations of a Transform customer? (Choose two)
A. Business processes are specific solution led
B. Businessprocesses are architecture led
C. Lowest TCO, CapEx, and best CEBP
D. Solution is ROI based
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 Which best represents Siemens' vision for the unification of the various types of communications in
enterprises?
A. LifeWorks
B. Open Communications
C. OpenPath
D. Unified Communications
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which best describes the OpenPath model?
A. How your customers can move their communications environment from where it is today to where they
need it to be.
B. How Siemens' solutions can affect the operating costs and sales of your customers.
C. How to decide which products fit your customers' profile.
D. How to maximize the lifetime values of solutions and services that you provide to your customers.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which best describes the Optimize customers under OpenPath?
A. Customers who will make specific investments in upgrading some elements if the business case is
right.
B. Customers who want to replace the older systems with new unified communication solutions.
C. Customers who want to make operational cost savings with minimal change to their current
infrastructure and systems.
D. Customers who want to focus around the implementation of new applications and solutions in their own
right.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What does "Open" in Open Communications signify?
A. Siemens provides Software Development Kits (SDKs) and Application Program Interfaces (APIs) that
allow better and easier voice integration.
B. Siemens Unified Communications solutions increase the operational costs due to complex
technologies.
C. Siemens Unified Communications solutions require customers to buy the entire solution instead of the
relevant solution elements.
D. Siemens Open Communications strategy is based on the Open Service Delivery principle.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which are the key reasons that there is a huge shift in the type of technology that small and medium
sized businesses are adopting and are spending money to change their telephone systems? (Choose
three)
A. Personal Mobility.
B. Corporate Excellence.
C. Cost Control.
D. Productivity.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.7 Which best describes Siemens' model for migration to Unified Communications?
A. OpenPath
B. LifeWorks
C. Open Service Delivery
D. HiPath 3000
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which best describes Siemens' most recent application specifically tailored to the needs of the small
and medium sized businesses.?
A. OpenScape
B. Unified Communciations
C. OpenScape Office
D. LifeWorks
Answer: C

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