2014年1月31日星期五

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Exam Code: ISEBSWTINT_001
Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB Software Testing Intermediate)
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25 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 When creating the functional specification for the temperature control system, which of the
following review types would be most recommended to resolve any issues?
A. A walkthrough.
B. A technical review.
C. A management review.
D. A code inspection.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which one is a product risk associated with the air quality management system?
A. The system required to monitor oxygen levels may be more expensive than those required to
monitor air temperatures.
B. SubsInc may need to recruit extra developers and testers to deliver the project on time.
C. Oxygen levels may reach dangerously low levels.
D. Extreme temperatures may lead to heat exhaustion of personnel.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following test design techniques would be most suitable for testing that the
oxygen is released at the required times?
A. Decision Testing.
B. Statement Testing.
C. Data flow Testing.
D. Boundary Value Analysis.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following would be an entry criterion into site acceptance testing for the air
quality monitoring system?
A. That the code written to fulfil the requirement to monitor carbon dioxide levels has been 100%
path tested.
B. That the functional specification accurately reflects requirements R1 and R2.
C. That the system has been tested at levels of oxygen usage well beyond anticipated personnel
levels.
D. That the requirements for temperature control have been signed-off.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is an accurate depiction of the hierarchy of test management
documentation (where the highest comes first)?
A. Test policy-Test strategy-Project test plan-System test plan
B. Test strategy-Test policy-Project test plan-System test plan
C. Test policy-Project test plan-Test strategy-System test plan
D. Project test plan-Test strategy-System test plan-Test policy
Answer: A

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Exam Name: ISC (CAP – Certified Authorization Professional)
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Updated: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system,
network,
or Web application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Which of the following
areas can be exploited in a penetration test?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Race conditions
B. Social engineering
C. Information system architectures
D. Buffer overflows
E. Kernel flaws
F. Trojan horses
G. File and directory permissions
Answer: A,B,D,E,F,G

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NO.2 What does RTM stand for?
A. Resource Testing Method
B. Replaced Traceability Matrix
C. Requirements Traceability Matrix
D. Resource Tracking Matrix
Answer: C

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NO.3 David is the project manager of HGF project for his company. David, the project team, and
several
key stakeholders have completed risk identification and are ready to move into qualitative risk
analysis. Tracy, a project team member, does not understand why they need to complete
qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following is the best explanation for completing
qualitative risk analysis?
A. It isa rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for the plan risk responses and
lays the foundation for quantitative analysis.
B. It is a cost-effective means of establishing probability and impact for the project risks.
C. Qualitative risk analysis helps segment the project risks, create a risk breakdown structure, and
create fast and accurate risk responses.
D. All risks must pass through quantitative risk analysis before qualitative risk analysis.
Answer: A

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Topic 1, Volume A

NO.4 Which of the following assessment methodologies defines a six-step technical security
evaluation?
A. FITSAF
B. FIPS 102
C. OCTAVE
D. DITSCAP
Answer: B

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Topic 4, Volume B

NO.5 Where can a project manager find risk-rating rules?
A. Risk probability and impact matrix
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk management plan
Answer: B

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Topic 2, Volume D

NO.6 Which of the following is NOT an objective of the security program?
A. Security organization
B. Security plan
C. Security education
D. Information classification
Answer: B

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Topic 1, Volume A

NO.7 Which of the following processes is a structured approach to transitioning individuals, teams,
and
organizations from a current state to a desired future state?
A. Configuration management
B. Procurement management
C. Change management
D. Risk management
Answer: C

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Topic 3, Volume C

NO.8 Kelly is the project manager of the BHH project for her organization. She is completing the risk
identification process for this portion of her project. Which one of the following is the only thing
that
the risk identification process will create for Kelly?
A. Project document updates
B. Risk register updates
C. Change requests
D. Risk register
Answer: D

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Topic 2, Volume D

NO.9 Which of the following system security policies is used to address specific issues of concern to
the
organization?
A. Program policy
B. Issue-specific policy
C. Informative policy
D. System-specific policy
Answer: B

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Topic 3, Volume C

NO.10 Topic 1, Volume A
1. The Chief Information Officer (CIO), or Information Technology (IT) director, is a job title
commonly
given to the most senior executive in an enterprise. What are the responsibilities of a Chief
Information Officer?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Preserving high-level communications and working group relationships in an organization
B. Facilitating the sharing of security risk-related information among authorizing officials
C. Establishing effective continuous monitoring program for the organization
D. Proposing the information technology needed by an enterprise to achieve its goals and then
working within a budget to implement the plan
Answer: A,C,D

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Topic 2, Volume D

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Exam Code: 000-274
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere DataPower SOA Appliances Firmware V5.0 Solution Implementation)
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75 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A solution implementer needs to create a new service on a DataPower virtual appliance. The new server needs to virtualize the back end server IP address from the end user while exposing
operations of a web service described by a given WSDL. Service Level Monitoring (SLM) is also to
be incorporated at the port level. Which service type should the solution implementer configure?
A. XML Firewall
B. Web Service Proxy
C. Multi-Protocol Gateway
D. Web Application Firewall
Answer: B

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NO.2 A company-wide Certificate Authority (CA) provides its internal CA root and intermediary
certificates to the solution implementer to use for the creation of Validation Credentials that
validates several back end servers using SSL. The two lines of business in the company provide
services on two different domains on DataPower and two different banks of servers on the back
end. The requirement is to share a single copy of the CA certificates to create validation
credentials in two domains for both the lines of business to simplify maintenance. How can the
solution implementer satisfy the requirement?
A. Store the CA certificates in the sharedcert: folder from the default domain.
B. Store the CA certificates in the store:///cert folder from the default domain.
C. Create Validation Credentials in the default domain so it can be shared across all the domains.
D. Store the certificate in the cert: folder in any of the two domains and mark the certificate as
shared.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A web service proxy is receiving orders from partners as SOAP messages. The service is
required
to reject messages if the total order cost in the message does not match the sum of the individual
item costs. What can the solution implementer do to support this requirement?
A. Create an XML Schema that enforces the above business requirements and uses this schema
in a Validate action.
B. Create a style sheet which performs the mathematical comparison and uses either a
<dp:accept> or <dp:reject>, and use this in a Filter action.
C. Configure an SLM Statement with the Threshold Level that computes the total order cost, and if
it does not match the total value then throttlethe transaction.
D. Define the requirement in a WS-Policy attachment for the service. The web service proxy will
then automatically perform the mathematicalcomparison and reject any invalid messages.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A financial services company (Company) is using a DataPower appliance to securely access an
external service provider (Partner) that processes SOAP/HTTPS payment transactions and
returns the responses to the requesting application in the Company with payment confirmations.
The Partner requires that Company establish non-repudiation so that the financial services
company cannot deny that the payment transaction was originated by them. The Company
requires that the confirmation sent back from the Partner also requires non-repudiation. Which of
the following statements is true?
A. Request Rule must Verify with crypto object containing Company public certificate and
Response Rule must Sign with crypto object containingPartner private key
B. Request Rule must Verify with crypto object containing the private key of Partner and
Response Rule must Sign with crypto object containingCompany public certificate
C. Request Rule must Sign with crypto object containing the Company private key and Response
Rule must Verify with crypto object containingPartner public certificate
D. Request Rule must Sign with crypto object containing the public certificate of Partner and
Response Rule must Verify with crypto objectcontaining Company private key
Answer: C

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NO.5 A company wants to enforce the run-time SOA governance using service level agreement (SLA)
and service level definitions (SLD) policy attachments for a line of business. The solution
implementer has configured a web service proxy service that uses a WebSphere Service Registry
and Repository (WSRR) subscription to meet this requirement. The WSRR server hosts the
governance enablement profile that contains SLA and SLD entities. The SLA objects in WSRR are
in SLA Active State. During a test run, it was identified that SLA policies from WSRR are not
enforced. How can the solution implementer resolve this situation to enforce SLA policies?
(choose 2) Verify that the:
A. SLA policies are accurate using probe.
B. SLA Enforcement Mode is set as "reject".
C. WSRR server object is set to version 7.5 or later.
D. WS-Policy Enforcement Mode is set as "enforce".
E. Fetch Policy Attachments option for the WSRR Subscription is set as "on".
Answer: C,E

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Exam Code: 000-253
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V6.1, Core Administration)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
108 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 When altering the level of logging information, which level provides more detailed logging information
thanthe default (info) level?
A. Fatal
B. Warning
C. Severe
D. Config
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which Web module parameter adjustments would result in improved response time for Web clients?
A. Disable load on startup
B. Enable pre-compile JSP option
C. Set the distributable flag
D. Set the reload interval to 20 seconds or less
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the correct syntax when running the backup configuration of administrative server files when
WebSphere Security is enabled?
A. backupConfig WebSphereConfig user <name> -password <password>
B. backupConfig WebSphereConfig backup.zip nohalt user <name> -password <password>
C. backupConfig WebSphereConfig -cell user <name> -password <password>
D. backupConfig WebSphereConfig profilename=AppSrv01 user <name> -password <password>
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which approach should be recommended when designing a production topology for WebSphere
application servers providing high availability and failover capabilities?
A. Create a design using multiple machines that handle the full production load, enabling the use of
application server clustering to provide failover capabilities
B. Utilize load balancers between the Web servers and the application servers to provide failover support
at the application server tier
C. Place the Authentication servers outside of the intrusion firewall with the Web servers, since the Web
servers will need to access them
D. Use the largest processor engines and least number of physical machines for the application server
tier, to minimize the software licensing costs
Answer:A

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NO.5 A J2EE application needs to be configured as follows: The EJB module and the utility JAR in the
application must be loaded by the same Class loader. Web module WAR1 and the EJB module must use
the same Class loader and Web module WAR2 must have its own Class loader. What is the correct Web
module Class loader configuration for this application?
A. WAR1 -Module, WAR2 -Module
B. WAR1 - Module, WAR2 - Application
C. WAR1 - Application, WAR2 - Application
D. WAR1 - Application, WAR2
Module
Answer: D

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NO.6 If an administrator configures session management for an application server to use SSL ID tracking,
which two other session tracking mechanisms should also be enabled?
A. Cookies
B. URL Rewriting
C. Security Integration
D. Serial Access
E. Java2 Security
Answer:AB

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NO.7 In a WebSphere cell configuration, which component is a single point of failure?
A. Deployment manager
B. Web container
C. EJB container
D. HTTP server
Answer:A

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NO.8 Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) servlets are packaged in which type of archive file?
A. SAR
B. WAR
C. JAR
D. EJB-JAR
E. SIP-JAR
Answer:A

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NO.9 What functionality does the Caching Proxy server provide?
A. Reverse proxy and content-based routing
B. Dynamic content caching and integration with servlet caching
C. File serving enabler
D. HTTP compression
E. Integration with Dynacache and third party object caches
Answer:AB

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NO.10 What is needed to load balance the HTTP traffic across a cluster of Web servers?
A. Configure a proxy server such as Tivoli Access Manager (TAM)
B. Enable server affinity for each HTTP server in the cluster
C. Implement the caching proxy server component of the WebSphere Edge
D. Use an IP sprayer from the load balancing component of the WebSphere Edge Components
Answer: D

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NO.11 When configuring a J2C connection factory, which setting can be configured using the administrative
console?
A. Container-managed authentication alias
B. Component-managed authentication alias
C. Authentication preference
D. Mapping configuration alias
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which services are implemented by the WebSphere application server?
A. Security, JMS messaging, Naming and HTTP Plug-in
B. The user registry, Naming and HTTP Plug-in
C. HTTP Load Balancing service, JMS messaging and Data Replication Service (DRS)
D. Security, Naming, Transaction and Dynamic Cache
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which set of parameters can a system administrator adjust to directly improve performance for the
EJB container?
A. Transaction lifetime and client inactivity timeout
B. Cache size and cache cleanup interval
C. Data source connection pool and server JVM size
D. Session timeout and HTTP session object size
Answer: B

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NO.14 A cluster member has suddenly crashed. The administrator is concerned about aborted transactions
holding locks in the database. What can an administrator do to release the locks?
A. Unmount the shared file system such as a Network Attached Storage (NAS) where the transaction log
is stored
B. Restart the deployment manager and node agents who manage the transaction log
C. Verify another running cluster member has access to the transaction log
D. Reconnect the database where the transaction log is stored
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which two components provide workload management capabilities?
A. Node agent
B. Web server plug-in
C. Caching proxy
D. Deployment manager
E. Load balancer
Answer: BE

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NO.16 What does a WebSphere application server provide to support the installation and deployment of JSR
168 compliant portlets?
A. An embedded portlet container
B. A scaled-down version of the WebSphere Portal Server
C. Several J2EE applications that render and aggregate portlets in a browser
D. An embedded version of WebSphere Portal Express
Answer:A

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NO.17 When the application server is experiencing normal to heavy usage, which statement most accurately
describes optimal pool usage?
A. The pools will all show similar numerical values, indicating balanced workload is occurring throughout
the application server.
B. Pools used by the application should be released and rebuilt in conjunction with JVM garbage
collection cycles ensuring that no stale connections persist.
C. The Performance Management Interface (PMI) must be explicitly enabled on the application server to
be monitored, since it requires CPU resources on the server being monitored.
D. Pools used by the application should be nearly fully utilized, indicating that resources are being
efficiently used.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which Web server plug-in setting is NOT configurable using the administrative console?
A. Load balancing option
B. Retry interval
C. Refresh configuration interval
D. Minimum number of connections
Answer: D

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NO.19 An application has 15 concurrent users and a connection pool size of 10. Each user uses 3 prepared
statements. For this application, what is the recommended prepared statement cache size?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 30
D. 45
Answer: C

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NO.20 An application server is using data source connections being managed thru connection pooling.
However, the server is logging database errors resulting from lack of connections. In this context, what
applies to tuning database connections?
A. Data sources are abstracted from the JDBC drivers to permit database upgrades without impacting the
application logic. The administrator should decrease the connection timeout value.
B. The connection pool is managed by the application server container, so in addition to increasing the
connection setting, additional connections allowed must be configured on the database.
C. The data sources are released at the end of the commit phase when using Type 4 JDBC drivers. New
connections will be created upon the next database access.
D. It is necessary to tune the applications before tuning WebSphere application server. Connections not
returned to the pool are often caused by programs not closing connections properly.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-015
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1 Implementation)
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148 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What is a seasonal-based Preventive Maintenance (PM) record?
A.a PM that defines a period when the PM status is made inactive
B.a PM that defines the specific dates in the future upon which Work Order will be generated
C.a PM with a set of defined days of week or periods of time in a year when the PM is considered active
and is eligible for Work Order generation
D.a PM that defines the days of the week when a Work Order can be generated (for example, Saturday -
Sunday when the production line has stopped)
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the purpose of a Condition Rate?
A.to create alternate paths in Workflows
B.to assign relative values to inventory items
C.to assign values to personnel for labor purposes
D.to indicate the costs associated with inventory items
Answer: B

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NO.3 Where can a Meter Group be referenced?
A.Asset, Location, Rotating Item
B.Asset, Item Master, Service Item, Tools
C.Asset, Location, Preventive Maintenance
D.Asset, Preventive Maintenance, Condition Monitoring
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are the three main differences between the functions of the Move/Modify Assets and Swap
Assets actions in the Assets application and the Move/Swap/Modify action in the Work Order Tracking
application? (Choose three.)
A.Future Asset moves can be planned in the Move/Swap/Modify action.
B.Downtime can be applied to multiple Assets in the Move/Modify Assets action.
C.Meter readings for Assets and Locations can be entered in the Move/Swap/Modify action.
D.The specification records of a Location or a Configuration Item can be modified in the
Move/Swap/Modify action.
E.Future changes to the user and custodian records of Assets and Locations can be planned in the
Move/Swap/Modify action.
F.Modifications can be made to the fields, priority, failure class, calendar and shift and changes can be
applied to multiple Assets in the Move/Modify Assets action.
Answer: ADE

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NO.5 When creating a purchase contract, what is the purpose of checking the Change Price on Use field?
A.It specifies that the price in the purchase order (PO) is only an estimated price.
B.It specifies that when a PO is issued against this contract, the price must be changed.
C.It specifies that the price of a given related item can be changed on related POs or purchase requests.
D.It specifies that the price of a given item specified in the Master Contract is reduced or increased, based
on market conditions.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Where are Ticket Templates used?
A.Work Requests
B.Service Requests
C.Desktop Requisitions
D.Work Order Tracking
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is a Failure Code hierarchy?
A.Problem, Cause, Remedy hierarchy based on a Work Classification
B.Problem, Cause, Remedy hierarchy based on an Asset Classification
C.Problem, Cause, Remedy hierarchy based on a Failure Classification
D.Problem, Cause, Remedy hierarchy based on a Location Classification
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which three statements are true about using the Move/Modify Assets or Swap Assets actions in the
Assets application? (Choose three.)
A.Any Asset can be moved to any site
B.Multiple Assets cannot be moved to another site in one action.
C.An Asset cannot be moved to another site if the Asset number already exists at that site.
D.Multiple Assets can be moved to the same Location or make these Assets a child of another Asset.
E.A hierarchy of Assets can be moved from one Location to another in the same site by selecting just the
top parent Asset.
F.A hierarchy of Assets can be moved into a storeroom by selecting just the top parent Asset, if all Assets
in the hierarchy are rotating.
Answer: DEF

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NO.9 When can Material Receipts be changed if inspection is not required?
A.prior to saving the Receipt Line
B.prior to inspecting the Receipt Line
C.prior to approving the Receipt Line
D.prior to completing the Receipt Line
Answer: A

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NO.10 From which three applications is it possible to create a Work Order? (Choose three.)
A.Assets
B.Routes
C.Job Plan
D.Work View
E.Configuration Items
F.Condition Monitoring
Answer: AEF

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NO.11 Which field(s) are hidden on the Asset application and may need the Application Designer in order to
display them?
A.Priority
B.Failure Class
C.Calendar and Shift Number
D.GL Account, Warranty Expiry Date
Answer: D

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NO.12 An attribute is added to a ClassStructure record in the Classifications application.
On which applications will the attribute be copied to existing records that use this classification?
A.Assets, Item, Locations
B.Job Plan, Ticket Template, Item
C.all applications that have a Specifications tab
D.Assets, Item, Job Plan, Preventive Maintenance
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which statement is correct?
A.When creating an Asset, it can be added directly to any storeroom by specifying a Location and rotating
item. The balance in the storeroom is incremented by one.
B.To add a rotating Asset to a storeroom, use the Inventory application and then use the Inventory
Adjustments - Current Balance action to increment the balance by one.
C.When creating an Asset, it can be added directly to a specific site's storeroom by specifying a Location
and rotating item. The balance in the storeroom is incremented by one.
D.When creating an Asset that will be initially held in a storeroom, the user creates the Asset then goes to
the Storeroom application in order to book it into a specific storeroom so that the balance is incremented
by one.
Answer: C

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NO.14 The appropriate status to invoke a Preventive Maintenance (PM) alert has been determined to be in the
Organization application.
What is the Select Action menu item where this can be set?
A.PM options
B.Asset options
C.System settings
D.Work Order options
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which statement about Condition Monitoring is the most accurate?
A.Multiple monitoring points can be created against the same Asset or Location. Before creating these
points, a meter of type Gauge or Characteristic must be defined.
B.Multiple monitoring points can be created against the same Asset. The meter type of these points will
be Gauge. A meter does not need to be created as this is created automatically.
C.Multiple monitoring points can be created against the same Asset. The Asset's current location is
provided as a reference. The point type needs to be specified as Gauge or Characteristic before entering
other details.
D.Multiple monitoring points can be created against the same Asset or Location. As each point is created,
a Gauge type meter for the measurements to be recorded against needs to be created. Characteristic
meters are not set up in Condition Monitoring, but on the Job Plan.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which statement is true about Asset hierarchies?
A.A hierarchy of Assets can only be created by using the actions: Apply Item Assembly Structure and
Move/Modify Assets.
B.There are numerous ways of creating or modifying an Asset hierarchy including planning and then
executing a group of Asset moves from the Ticket-based applications.
C.When creating an Asset, it can be assigned a parent Asset. After the record is saved, the hierarchy can
be created from the Spare Parts tab or the action Move/Modify Assets.
D.Asset hierarchies can only be formed for rotating Assets. The most popular methods of creating the
hierarchy are to use the action Apply Item Assembly Structure and Move/Modify Assets in the Asset
application and Move/Swap/Modify in the Work Order Tracking application.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which Asset fields must have data for the record to be saved to the database?
A.Site, Location, Type
B.Site, Status, Location
C.Site, Status, Asset Up?
D.Status, Location, Failure Class
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which statement is correct?
A.The classification of a rotating Asset is determined from the classification belonging to its rotating item.
The value of an Asset specification record is always updateable.
B.The classification of a rotating Asset is determined from the classification belonging to its rotating item.
The value of an Asset specification record is determined from the corresponding attribute's value on the
item specification.
C.The classification of a rotating Asset can be entered by the user and the Asset specification is derived
from the classification you enter. The value of an attribute can be entered by the user. There is no
relationship with the item specification.
D.The classification of a rotating Asset is enterable only if its rotating item has no classification of its own.
When the classification has been entered by the user on the Asset, the attribute values are updateable.
Otherwise, they are read-only and are determined from the corresponding attribute's value on the item
specification.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which record type(s) can belong to a Collection?
A.Users
B.Asset, Location, Item
C.Asset, Location, Configuration Item
D.Asset, Actual Configuration Item, Deployed Asset, Configuration Item
Answer: C

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NO.20 Click the Exhibit button.
The diagram in the exhibit shows a dialog box that opens when the Select Value option is selected from
the Asset or Location field on a Service Request. The Filter By field has three options User/Custodian,
Public and All.
In which application can the default for this field be changed?
A.Organizations
B.Service Requests
C.Application Designer
D.Database Configuration
Answer: D

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NO.21 Which statement is true about the Users and Custodians functionality?
A.Users and Custodians can be created for Assets. A User is someone who uses the Asset. A Custodian
is someone responsible for the care of the Asset. For each person entered, the User field, the Custodian
field or both must be checked. One person can be nominated as the Primary Contact for the Asset.
B.Users and Custodians can be created for Assets and Locations. A User is someone who uses the Asset
or Location. A Custodian is someone responsible for the care of the Asset or Location. For each person
entered, either the User field or the Custodian field or both fields must be checked. One person can be
nominated as the Primary Contact for the Asset or Location.
C.User and Custodians can be created for Assets, Locations and Configuration Items (CIs). The dialog
box has a table window for creating Users and Custodians and another for creating Primary Contacts who
are used for communicating information about the Asset, Location or CI by email or bulletin board. A
person can be a user or a custodian, or both a user and a custodian.
D.Users and Custodians can be created for Assets and Locations. A User is someone who uses the
Asset. A Custodian is someone responsible for the care of the Asset. The Primary Contact is used for
communicating information about the Asset or Location by email or bulletin board. These three fields act
like a radio button, only one of them can be checked on each person record.
Answer: B

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NO.22 Which statement about an Asset hierarchy is correct?
A.Once created, additional children can always be added to the hierarchy from the Spare Parts tab when
the parent Asset is the current record.
B.Once created, additional children can always be added to the hierarchy as long as the parent is a
rotating Asset, it is not decommissioned, and it is not in a storeroom.
C.An Asset hierarchy can be created from rotating and non-rotating Assets and can be set so that the
hierarchy can not be modified from the Spare Parts tab in the Asset application.
D.An Asset hierarchy can only be created from rotating Assets using the action Apply Item Assembly
Structure. The hierarchy can be locked so that it cannot be modified from the Spare Parts tab in the Asset
application.
Answer: C

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NO.23 Which statement is true about a characteristic meter in the Condition Monitoring application?
A.Multiple action values can be entered that belong to an ALN domain. When an action value is recorded,
a Job Plan or a PM is used to generate a Work Order.
B.Multiple action values can be entered that belong to either an ALN or a Numeric domain. When an
action value is recorded, a PM is used to generate a Work Order.
C.An upper limit and a lower limit can be entered. When the last measurement is outside of these limits, a
Preventive Maintenance (PM) can be used to generate a Work Order.
D.When an action value is recorded, a Work Order can be generated using the specified Job Plan. Only
one of the values in the ALN domain can be used as an action value.
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which applications record the history of attribute changes made on the Specifications tab, without
having to use e-Audit as defined in Database Configuration?
A.Asset, Configuration Item
B.Job Plan, Ticket Template
C.Item Master, Service Item, Tool, Job Plan
D.Asset, Location, Item Master, Service Item, Tool
Answer: A

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NO.25 Which three objects have rotating records? (Choose three.)
A.Person
B.Assets
C.Locations
D.Job Plans
E.Item Master
F.Service Items
Answer: BCE

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NO.26 Which statement is correct?
A.Any type of Ticket or Work Order can be created from the Asset, Location and Configuration Item (CI)
applications.
B.A Service Request, Incident, Problem, Work Order, Change or Release in the Assets, Locations and CI
applications can be created.
C.A Service Request or Work Order can be created from the Assets and Locations applications. A Ticket
or Work Order cannot be created from the CI application.
D.Any type of Ticket or Work Order can be created from the Assets and Locations applications, but you
can not create an activity or task. A Ticket or Work Order cannot be created from the CI application.
Answer: B

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NO.27 What are the three types of meters?
A.Flow, Utility, Rate
B.Condition, Utility, Gauge
C.Continuous, Condition, Rate
D.Continuous, Gauge, Characteristic
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which item type(s) can be used as a rotating item on both an Asset and a Location?
A.Item only
B.Item and Tool only
C.Item, Service Item, Tool
D.Item and Service Item only
Answer: B

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NO.29 Which statement is correct?
A.A condition code can be used on any rotating Asset.
B.A condition code can be added to any type of Asset.
C.A condition code can only be used on a rotating Asset when the item is condition enabled.
D.There is no condition code on an Asset. Condition codes are only associated with items that are
purchased or held in a storeroom.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M24
Exam Name: IBM (M24 IBM Rational AppScan Technical Sales Mastery Test v1 )
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36 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which AppScan user interface provides relevant information about how AppScan tests for a particular
vulnerability?
A.Application Tree
B.Request / Response
C.Advisory
D.Application Data
E.Remediation Tasks View
F.Security Issues View
Answer:B

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NO.2 How can you specify what information is included in an AppScan report?
A.By specifying particular tests
B.By selecting / deselecting individual items of information
C.By exploring manually
D.By creating custom tests
Answer:B

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NO.3 What information does the 'Difference' displayed in the Request / Response tab provide?
A.The difference between two tests
B.How AppScan constructed the test HTTP request
C.How the vulnerability was resolved
D.How the web application page has been modified from its previous version
Answer:B

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NO.4 Which AppScan feature is used to verify that AppScan is still logged in to the application during
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A.In-session detection
B.Manual Explore
C.Automatic Explore
D.Automatic Form Fill
Answer:A

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NO.5 What happens when AppScan generates an Industry Standard report?
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B.It generates and executes industry-specific tests.
C.It provides industry-specific advisories.
D.It applies an industry-specific test policy.
Answer:A

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Exam Code: 000-419
Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Quality Stage v8 Examination)
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NO.1 When running Word Investigation, producing a pattern report will help you do what?
A. Refine a standardization rule set.
B. Decide which fields to use for blocking fields.
C. Discover inconsistencies in data type representation.
D. Identify which patterns should survive.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You modified a rule set to correct a problem with address standardization. Subsequent job runs show
no changes in standardization. Which two techniques will troubleshoot the problem? (Choose two.)
A. Provision the rule set.
B. Use a reject file for the input sequential file.
C. Use a reject file for the output data set.
D. Use the Rules Analyzer to test the rules logic.
Answer: AD

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NO.3 Which two steps occur when executing a match? (Choose two.)
A. summing records
B. isolating a subset of records to process using blocking strategy
C. incrementing a group of records using hashing strategy
D. scoring records
Answer: BD

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NO.4 A survive rule requires which two components? (Choose two.)
A. master record
B. column to analyze
C. match type
D. technique to apply
Answer: BD

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
The exhibit displays an example of distribution of weights for matched and unmatched records.
To further separate the distributions and improve the distinction of matched and unmatched records,
which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Add disagreement weight overrides which will decrease the match composite score.
B. Decrease the number of variables in the match to allow remaining match fields to have more
discriminating power.
C. Add more variables to the match to provide additional information in calculating the match composite
score.
D. Lower the clerical cutoff and increase the match cutoff.
E. Add agreement weight overrides which will increase the composite match score.
Answer: ACE

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NO.6 For an Unduplicate Match, how does the Match stage determine the master record?
A. the record within a block with the most unhandled data
B. the record within a block with the most values populated
C. the record within a block that matched to itself with the highest weight
D. the record within a block that occurred last
Answer: C

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NO.7 Given the survivorship rule shown below:
COLUMN3: (SIZEOF(TRIM c.COLUMN3) >= 5) AND (SIZEOF(TRIM c.COLUMN1) > 0)
How will this survivorship rule be interpreted?
A. COLUMN3 of the previous record should be retained if the column contains five or more characters
and COLUMN1 has any contents.
B. COLUMN3 of the previous record should not be retained if the column contains five or more characters
and COLUMN1 has any contents.
C. COLUMN3 of the current record should be retained if the column contains five or more characters and
COLUMN1 has any contents.
D. COLUMN3 of the current record should not be retained if the column contains five or more characters
and COLUMN1 has any contents.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit you created and ran an unduplication job that produces masters, duplicates, clericals, and
residuals. The resulting residuals appear to contain records that should have matched.
Which technique will help you find the problem?
A. Add a reject link to the Matched stage to capture records with invalid data.
B. Add a reject link to the Unduplicate stage to capture records with invalid data.
C. Insert a Peek stage between the Unduplicate and Residuals stage to audit records.
D. Examine the match statistics message for the job in Director and look for block overflow.
Answer: D

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NO.9 What are the two Match Specification probabilities that can be configured? (Choose two.)
A. m probability
B. u probability
C. r probability
D. pi probability
Answer: AB

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
Examine the statistics shown in the exhibit.
How many candidate groupings were processed for the data in Match Pass - CUSTOMER_ZIP3?
A. 4
B. 19
C. 14
D. 23
Answer: C

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NO.11 When multiple rules are specified for the same target in a Survive stage, how is precedence
determined?
A. The first rule to evaluate as true has priority.
B. The rules appearing later in the list have precedence.
C. The value in the rule priority option determines the precedence.
D. The master record of the match set has priority.
Answer: B

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NO.12 In a sample data set of 10,000,000 records, the Social Security number has 90 percent distinct values.
To ensure that the Social Security number does not over-discriminate based upon its rare occurrence,
which statement is true?
A. Change the u-probability on the match command screen from .01 to .0000001.
B. Set special variable handling "CRITICAL".
C. Set special variable handling "NOFREQ".
D. Do not use the Social Security number in a match command.
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is a result when you increase the match cut-off setting?
A. It minimizes the false positives.
B. It minimizes the false negatives.
C. It adds agreement weight.
D. It subtracts agreement weight.
Answer: A

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NO.14 When testing a reference match specification, which two statements accurately describe what should
be performed? (Choose two.)
A. Match frequencies must be generated to have no overlap.
B. Match frequencies must be generated for the source file.
C. Match frequencies must be generated for the reference file.
D. Match frequencies must be generated to have some overlap.
Answer: BC

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NO.15 You built and tested a match job. Now you want to move it to the production server. Which three
components should be moved to the production server? (Choose three.)
A. job
B. match passes
C. rule sets
D. match specifications
E. Match Designer evaluation database
Answer: ABD

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NO.16 What are the values of a survived record's columns if no input records pass any of the survive rules?
A. blanks
B. values of the first record processed
C. values of the last record processed
D. values of the master record of the matched set
Answer: A

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NO.17 Some records in the Name column may contain a valid data value such as "Jane Doe" and some
records contain a NULL. The Name column is not used as a blocking variable. Which action can be
performed in the match specification to penalize records for containing a NULL in the name column?
A. Increase the Match Cut-off setting.
B. Change the Data Source Missing Weight.
C. Add a Weight Override for disagreement weight.
D. Change the Weight Override Conditional Data setting.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which two statements are true about QualityStage survivorship? (Choose two.)
A. A rule can have only one target and a TRUE condition expression.
B. The input record requires a group identifier.
C. All input records must be combined into one input link.
D. A Survive job requires that you link a single input stage with multiple output stages.
E. The output file definition is the same as the input file definition.
Answer: BC

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NO.19 You are obtaining product data from a new parts vendor. In your processing design you are using the
Reference Match stage to ensure these new parts are valid. This stage can deliver up to six outputs as a
result of this match processing. What are three of these outputs? (Choose three.)
A. Data Duplicate
B. Data Filtered
C. Clerical
D. Sorted
E. Match
Answer: ACE

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NO.20 How does the Survive stage relate records to be survived?
A. by the target columns of each survive rule
B. by the group identification column
C. by the column to be analyzed for each rule
D. by the match type ID column
Answer: B

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Exam Code: LOT-702
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 7 System Administration Update)
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90 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 .If the client is configured to disclaim send Notes RTF messages to the Internet, the client adds the
disclaimer to the message. The message is then converted from RTF to what format?
A. It remains in RTF format
B. NRPC
C. MIME
D. CD
Answer: C

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NO.2 .Enrique, the Domino administrator has created a response file for a silent server installation. What
parameter must be run on the server to utilize this response file?
A. setup.exe -silent -options c:\temp\install.txt
B. silent.exe -response -options c:\temp\install.txt
C. nsetup.exe -silent -options c:\temp\install.txt
D. setup.exe -response -options c:\temp\install.txt
Answer: A

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NO.3 .DNS whitelists may be overridden by which of the following?
A. Server signed agents in mail.box
B. Server based mail rules
C. Privatewhitelists and DNS blacklists
D. Privatewhitelists and private blacklists
Answer: D

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NO.4 .Users that wish to utilize the Smart Upgrade feature to upgrade a full client installation must have
what variable present on the client?
A. InstallType=6
B. InstallType=4
C. InstallType=2
D. InstallType=1
Answer: C

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NO.5 .Todd is configuring a DDM Messaging probe to test Delivery Status Notifications. What must the
remote mail system support for these probes to function correctly?
A. The .smtp extension
B. The .ddm extension
C. The .nsd extension
D. The .dsn extension
Answer: D

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NO.6 .The Domino Console connects to the Controller over what default port?
A. 1352
B. 2050
C. 1533
D. 80
Answer: B

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NO.7 .You wish to resolve an issue without user intervention based on a received event in DDM. Which
handler notification method provides this functionality?
A. Pager
B. Log to Database
C. Run an Agent
D. Broadcast
Answer: C

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NO.8 .Which of the following policies offer client lock-down?
A. Desktop policy and archive policy settings
B. Mail policy and archive policy settings
C. Desktop policy and mail policy settings
D. Mail policy and security policy settings
Answer: C

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NO.9 .Chuck, the Domino administrator, is having issues with character sets and messages that get
disclaimers added by the server. Which of the following configuration changes should he make to
correct this issue?
A. He should add the missing character sets to the server
B. He should remove the character sets from the server
C. He should change the message disclaimer to add a question mark wherever character sets are
utilized
D. He should have the Notes client add the disclaimers
Answer: D

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NO.10 .Mark, the Domino administrator, has configured explicit, organizational units and organization
policies to contain message disclaimers. Presuming a user matches all the policies created and
sends a mail message, what disclaimer will be applied?
A. The user will have the organizational policy disclaimer applied to the mail message
B. The user will have no disclaimer applied to the mail message since there are multiple matches
C. The user will have only the explicit policy disclaimer applied to the mail message
D. The user will have all the policy disclaimers applied to the mail message
Answer: C

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NO.11 .Enrique, the Domino administrator has created a response file for a silent server installation. What
parameter must be run on the server to utilize this response file?
A. setup.exe -response -options c:\temp\install.txt
B. setup.exe -silent -options c:\temp\install.txt
C. silent.exe -response -options c:\temp\install.txt
D. nsetup.exe -silent -options c:\temp\install.txt
Answer: B

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NO.12 .S/MIME mail messages being sent to the Internet are having message disclaimers applied by the
server. However, recipients are unable to unencrypt or read the body. What step(s) should the
Domino administrator take to ensure that the messages can be read by the Internet recipients?
A. Enable the flag in the policy document to skip adding disclaimers on S/MIME messages
B. Configure the new S/MIME task on the Domino server to read and apply the disclaimers
C. Disable the server from applying message disclaimers and enable them to be added by the
client
D. Configure the S/MIME certificate inside the policy applying the message disclaimer
Answer: C

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NO.13 .The Domino administrator has enabled AutoSave for all users. Where are AutoSave documents
stored?
A. To an administrator defined central repository database
B. To a user's mail database located on the server
C. To a user's local database
D. To an administrator defined server database per user
Answer: C

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NO.14 .What Domino feature must be enabled to monitor the number of active Domino Web Access
users?
A. Domino Domain Monitoring
B. Activity logging
C. Server monitoring in the Domino Administration client
D. Server health reports
Answer: B

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NO.15 .When an S/MIME signed message has a disclaimer added by the server and is received by a
Notes user, which of the following is the result?
A. The message cannot be transmitted and is returned to the user
B. The message cannot be read by the recipient
C. The signature is stripped from the message
D. The signature cannot be verified
Answer: D

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NO.16 .New users are attempting to change their Lotus Notes user.id password. However, anyone that
attempts to end the new password with an exclamation point is denied from using that new
password. What is the cause of this denial?
A. Custom client policy
B. Custom control policy
C. Custom desktop policy
D. Custom password policy
Answer: D

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NO.17 Smart Upgrade failover utilizes what search order?
A. By document link in the Notes client
B. By server name and hard-coded path to the Smart Upgrade database
C. By database replica ID and database name in the home server cluster
D. By notes.ini variable on the client listing all servers in the domain which the Smart Upgrade
database may be found
Answer: C

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NO.18 .Private server blacklists are stored in what database?
A. names.nsf
B. A Domino administrator defined database
C. blacklist.nsf
D. smtpconf.nsf
Answer: A

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NO.19 .You must create a DDM collection hierarchy to initiate which of the following?
A. Data roll-up
B. Probe interface
C. Data interface
D. Probe initiation
Answer: A

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NO.20 .Byron, the Domino administrator, does not want private whitelisted hosts to not have any logging
performed on the filter checks. Which setting should he select?
A. Do not log connection
B. Log only
C. Log and tag message
D. Silently skip blacklist filters
Answer: D

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