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Exam Code: HP0-D03
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Insight Dynamics - VSE Solutions)
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46 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-09-28

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NO.1 Which statement is true about paravirtualization?
A.The guest operating systems run at the standard Ring-0 architectural layer, removing the need for ring
compression.B.The hypervisor resides on the server hardware and the guest operating system is aware it
is running on a virtual machine.
C.The virtualization layer is hosted by the underlying operating system and the applications are controlled
by the hypervisor.
D.Portions of the system hardware are emulated, providing the guest operating system with virtual server
hardware and devices.
Answer: B

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NO.2 When creating system utilization reports, which static information does the report header contain?
(Select two.)
A.platform
B.idle power
C.workload description
D.contained in system
E.contained in complex
Answer: AB

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NO.3 What application data can be imported into Capacity Advisor using the Optimize menu? (Select two.)
A.HP Storage Essentials host data
B.HP ProLiant Support Pack (PSP) data
C.HP ProLiant Management Pack (PMP) data
D.HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) data
E.HP OpenView Performance Agent (OVPA) data
Answer: CE

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NO.4 An HP BladeSystem c7000 Enclosure is populated with full-height server blades with default DIP switch
settings on the Virtual Connect Fibre Channel module. Which Virtual Connect Fibre Channel uplinks are
used if the server blade has the Fibre Channel HBA mezzanine card in mezzanine connector 1 or 2?
A.1 and 2
B.1 and 3
C.1 and 4
D.2 and 4
Answer: A

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NO.5 You need to compare Scenario reports.Where do you accomplish this from the HP Systems Insight
Manager Menu bar?
A.Optimize --> Capacity Advisor --> Create Scenario Comparison Reports...
B.Reports --> Capacity Advisor --> Create Scenario Comparison Reports...
C.Options --> Capacity Advisor --> Create Scenario Comparison Reports...
D.Tasks & Logs --> Capacity Advisor --> Create Scenario Comparison Reports...
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-714
Exam Name: HP (HP OpenView Storage Area Manager Fundamentals)
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115 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-09-28

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NO.1 When using associated LUN groups. If a requested assignment is unsuccessful for any
LUN in the group. When happens to the operation?
A. if fails for the entire group.
B. If fails for the individul logical unit.
C. It continues with an error message.
D. It prompt the user to continue or roll back the assignment.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Exhibit, Mapped Devices (Physical Map)
What are two possible causes for the status change of the HP AstorageWorks Virtual
Array on the MAP shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. The array is powered off.
B. A disk has failed in the array.
C. One of the redundant controllers has failed.
D. One of he redundant controllers has failed
E. The only host connected to the array is turned off.
Answer: A.E

NO.3 What is recommended as an enhancement to HP OpenView Storage Allocater security
because it prevents the accidental attachment of a host without a storage
Allocater-activated Host Agent?
A. soft zoning
B. hard zoning
C. secure manager
D. individual port control
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which fibre channel switch display inactive zones in HP OpenView Storage Area
Manager?
A. Cisco
B. McData
C. Brocade
D. All switches
Answer: C

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NO.5 Organization are common to which two HP OpenView Storage Area Manager
applications? (Choose two.)
A. Storage Builder
B. Storage Allocator
C. Storage Optimizer
D. Storage Accountant
E. Storage Node Manager
Answer: A.D

NO.6 Which three features are provided by the HP Open View Storage Area Manager device
maps? (Choose three.)
A. displays integration status with other applications
B. provides graphical display of device and link status
C. provide charting capabilities for reporting on devices
D. displays collections of discovered devices in a topology
E. provides a launching point for device management applications
Answer: B.D.E

NO.7 HP Open View Storage Aliocater Associated LUN Groups assigns____.
A. LUNs individually
B. LUNs to multiple hosts
C. Several LUNs as a unit
D. Individual LUNs from within the group
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is required to associate a price to a LUN in HP OpenView Storage Accountant?
A. assign the LUN and the to an account
B. create a service level and add the LUN to an account
C. create a billing cycle with a price associated with the LUN
D. create a service level and assign the LUN to the service level
Answer: D

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NO.9 Application links in HP OpenView Storage Area Manager can be linked to ____.(Choose
three.)
A. a device class
B. the Tools Menu
C. a specific device
D. the Resource tree
E. the Application tree
Answer: A.B.C

NO.10 In order for HP Open View Storage Area Manaher to discover an HP Storage Works EVA
Array, an entry is needed in the ___panel of the Configuration window.
A. Proxy Devices
B. Management Appliances
C. Additional Storage Arrays
D. SNMP Discovery Ranges
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which two statements are true about adding a new license to HP OpenView Storage Area
Manager? (Choose two.)
A. it requires an HP order number.
B. It requires an internet connection
C. It uses the Auto Pass application.
D. It can be accomplished from any management client.
Answer: A.C

NO.12 Why is it important to make sure that LUNs are physically and logically to an
organization by adding them to an account?
A. Te LUNs will not show up as assigned
B. LUNs will be removed from the pool of available resources.
C. Organizations can be charged for LUNs that they cannot use.
D. Usage information will be collected and no organization will be charged.
Answer: C

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NO.13 How can HP OpenView Storage Allocator be activated? (Choose three.)
A. locally via CD-ROM
B. using the HP Openview Storage Allocator Setup Assistant
C. using the HP Openview Storage Allocator Activation Wizard
D. using the HP Open view Storage area Manager Setup Assistan
E. using the HP Open view Storage area Manager Agent Activation Wizard
Answer: A.C.D

NO.14 What is the purpose of a passphrase?
A. is used by Device Plug-ins (DPI) to obtain information about the device
B. allows communication of third-party applications to the HP OpenView SAM Bridge service
C. allows communication between the management server and management clients that use
DHCP
D. authorizes communication between the management server and manager-of-Managers (MoM)
clients
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which two statements about the HP OpenView Storage Allocator Special Unassign
command are true? (Choose two.)
A. when the command runs. It will try a regular unassignment first.
B. when the command runs. All affected hosts will be rebooted automatically
C. when the command runs. An event will be generated for each host that needs to be rebooted.
D. The Special Unassign command is available for all HP OpenView Storage Allocator
supported host operating systems.
Answer: A.C

NO.16 To which three file formats can HP OpenView Storage Accountant customer billing
information be exported? (Choose three.)
A. .txt
B. .csv
C. .xml
D. .doc
E. .html
Answer: B.C.E

NO.17 The HP OpenViwe Storage Area Manager Setup Assistant is available ____.
A. from the Tools Menu within the management client
B. from the command line on the management server
C. automatically, immediately after management server installation
D. automatically, after the management server is rebooted after installation
Answer: C

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NO.18 How can passphrases be entered?
A. right-click the device and select Configure Passphrases
B. from the Tools Configuration Menu, select Configure Passphrases
C. from th propertied page for device, select Configure Passphrases
D. edit the passphrases cfg file and enter the device name and passphrase
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which two statements are true about HP OpenView Storage Area manager Arbitrary
folders? (Choose two.)
A. they support nesting
B. they are visible from the Applications tree
C. they enable thresholds to be set on groups of resources
D. they are exclusive (a member can only belong to one folder).
Answer: A.D

NO.20 From the HP OpenView Storage Area Manager Custom Setup screen, you can select the
___.(Choose three.)
A. OS depots to install
B. Feature (applications) to install
C. Directory to install OS depot files
D. Directory to install hostagent files
E. Directory to install the management server files
Answer: A.B.E

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Exam Code: HP0-P20
Exam Name: HP (HP-UX 11i v3 System Administration )
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
312 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-09-28

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NO.1 What are the new features of the HP-UX 11i v3 mass storage stack? (Select two.)
A. It automatically creates the device files for a new device.
B. It automatically installs the kernel drivers for a new device.
C. It provides different load balancing policies for devices.
D. It increases the maximum I/O paths per device to 6.
E. It automatically recreates the LVM structure for a replaced disk.
Answer: AC

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NO.2 You are upgrading a supported version of HP-UX to 11i v3. You check and resolve the prerequisites
and then you back up your system. What is the next step in the upgrade process?
A. Use update-ux from the command line to start the update.
(for example: update-ux -s /dvdrom HPUX11i-BOE)
B. Update your system using the update-ux Terminal User Interface (TUI).
(for example: update-ux -i -s /dvdrom)
C. Use swinstall to update your system.
(for example: swinstall -s /dvdrom HPUX11i-BOE)
D. Use swinstall to install the latest version of the Update-UX bundle on the target system.
(for example: swinstall -s /dvdrom Update-UX)
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which information is provided by the swlist default output? (Select two.)
A. product/bundle size
B. version number
C. state of the product/bundle
D. description of the product/bundle
E. special install instructions
Answer: BD

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NO.4 Which new features of HP-UX 11i v3 potentially increase the overall I/O performance compared to
previous releases of HP-UX 11i? (Select two.)
A. sx2000 chipset support
B. agile device addressing
C. native multipathing
D. Unified File Cache (UFC)
E. persistent device special files
Answer: CD

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NO.5 What are the major modes for HP-UX Software Assistant?
A. display, get, set, and delete
B. report, get, step, and clean
C. list, get, install, and remove
D. export, import, install, and remove
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which technology does the Intel Itanium2 processor use?
A. Super Scalar Reduced Instruction Computing
B. Complex Instruction Set Computing
C. Reduced Instruction Set Computing
D. Explicitly Parallel Instruction Computing
Answer: D

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NO.7 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Place an "X" next to the supported update paths from HP-UX 11i v2 to HP- UX 11i
v3 and from the original Operating Environments (OEs) to the new OEs.
img-000 (exhibit):
x (exhibit):
A.
Answer:

NO.8 You have expanded an existing LUN in your EVA storage. The LUN belongs to an HP-UX 11i v3 LVM
volume group (VG). You want to expand the volume group to reflect the new LUN size. What is the most
efficient way to accomplish this?
A. Create another physical volume and extend your current VG.
B. Back up, remove, create and restore the data to reflect the new size.
C. You cannot expand a physical volume when using LVM.
D. Use the vgmodify command to change the physical volume attributes.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which file systems are included with the HP-UX 11i v3 Base Operating Environment?
A. HFS and Base JFS
B. HFS and VxVM
C. HFS and Online JFS
D. Base JFS and ext3
E. Online JFS and memfs
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which command determines the patches and associated filesets that are currently installed on the
system?
A. check_filesets
B. swlist -l product | grep -i ph
C. swlist -l depot | grep -i ph
D. swlist -l product | grep -i patch
E. swlist -l patch [fileset]
Answer: E

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NO.11 What are the features and benefits of HP Integrity server's EFI (Extended Firmware Interface).? (Select
two.)
A. provides a shell and scripting support
B. is only required when the system runs vPars
C. enables the hardware to boot different vendors' operating systems
D. holds the kernel of the operating system
E. provides a Boot Maintenance Manager for simultaneous operating system instance boot
Answer: AC

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NO.12 Which command identifies known security vulnerabilities on the system?
A. swa scan
B. swa ident
C. swa report
D. swa sec_chk
Answer: C

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NO.13 When you boot from an Ignite server, you initially see a small menu with all HP-UX releases available
on the Ignite server. Which command is used to change the options of this menu?
A. auto_adm
B. make_config
C. dbprofile
D. instl_adm
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which file contains the LVM configuration information for LVMv1?
A. lvmpvg
B. lvmtab
C. lvmconf
D. lvminfo
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which command boots a vPar, called p1, when at the MON> prompt?
A. vparboot -p p1
B. vparload -p p1
C. vparstart -p p1
D. vparrun -p p1
Answer: B

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NO.16 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Match each patch bundle with its description.
Answer:

NO.17 You are performing a cold installation of HP-UX using the Advanced Installation option. On which
menu tab can you add additional disks to the root volume group?
A. Basic
B. Software
C. System
D. File System
E. Advanced
Answer: D

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NO.18 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Match the patch names with the correct patch functionality. (The HP-UX patch
name format is: PHxx_yyyyy.)
Answer:

NO.19 What is the minimum Operating Environment (OE) version that includes the Java tools HPjconfig and
HPjmeter?
A. High Availability OE (HA-OE)
B. Base OE (BOE)
C. Virtual Server OE (VSE-OE)
D. Data Center OE (DC-OE)
E. Technical Computing OE (TCOE)
Answer: B

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NO.20 Issuing the command make_net_recovery -s <Ignite-UX_server> will create a recovery archive.
What is included in this archive? (Select two.)
A. all customized configuration files needed to rebuild the system
B. LVM configuration information for the root volume group
C. a boot image to bring up the system again
D. an archive of all files and directories contained in the file systems in vg00
E. a bootable client of Data Protector to recover all lost files from the backup server
Answer: BC

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Exam Code: HP2-T17
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP Proliant ML/DL/SL Servers)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
120 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-09-28

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NO.1 For the Intel x5570 Series processors in the HP ProLiant SL2x170z G6, what does the letter "x"
preceding the processor model number indicate?
A.extreme performance
B.lower wattage
C.turbo boost performance
D.high performance/wattage
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which type of internal slot has been added to HP ProLiant G6-based servers for use by hypervisors?
A.Extreme Digital (xD)
B.Secure Digital (SD)
C.Compact Flash (CF)
D.PCI-express (PCIe)
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which processors use hyperthreading? (Select two.)
A.Intel single core processors
B.AMD dual core processors
C.AMD quad core processors
D.Intel dual core processors
Answer: AD

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NO.4 Which operating system has support for the ZFS filesystem?
A.Sun Solaris
B.Windows Server 2008 R2 x64 Enterprise Edition
C.Novell NetWare 6.5
D.Novell SLES 10
Answer: A

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NO.5 How many memory channels are there in a 2 processor DDR3-based server.?
A.2 channels
B.3 channels
C.4 channels
D.6 channels
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer has an HP ProLiant G6 server, which meets the minimum requirements of 4 disks. They
have purchased the Smart Array Advanced Pack. The customer complains that RAID 6 is not displayed
as an option in ORCA.
What must be done to correct the problem?
A.The license key must be entered in RBSU.
B.The license key must be activated over the Internet.
C.The license key must be entered in ORCA.
D.The license key must be entered in iLO RBSU.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is required to support each installed HP 10Gb network adapter in a ProLiant server?
A.dedicated 2GB RAM
B.quad-core CPU
C.QuickPath architecture
D.internal PCI-X 2.0
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which components are under the control of Dynamic Power Management on Intel Xeon 5500 Series
(Nehalem) based servers? (Select two.)
A.chipset
B.PCI-e cards
C.hard drives
D.CPU
E.fans
Answer: AD

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NO.9 A server has four disks, each 146GB in size. They are configured as RAID 5. What is the logical drive
size presented to the operating system?
A.292GB
B.438GB
C.584GB
D.730GB
Answer: B

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NO.10 What information does the ADU provide? (Select three.)
A.firmware version
B.OEM hard drive vendor
C.RAID stripe size
D.Hardware Error Logs
E.Smart Array driver version
Answer: ACD

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NO.11 Which key functions are under the control of the new ProLiant OnBoard Administrator found in every
ProLiant G6 server? (Select two.)
A.power and thermal optimization
B.automated firmware upgrade
C.extended health monitoring
D.TPM module management
Answer: AC

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NO.12 Which RAID level does Smart Array Advanced Pack (SAAP) employ to enhance performance,
reliability and availability?
A.RAID 1+0
B.RAID 5
C.RAID 6+0
D.RAID 5+0
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which capability is a key improvement in HP ProLiant G6 servers using Dynamic Power Management?
A.ability to spin down idle disk drives
B.ability to put CPU sockets to sleep and wake up real time
C.ability to power down unused PCI-e slots
D.ability to put CPU cores to sleep and wake up real time
Answer: D

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NO.14 In which log are Array POST errors recorded?
A.Windows Event Log
B.Integrated Management Log
C.IPMI Log
D.Onboard Administrator Log
Answer: B

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NO.15 On Intel Xeon 5500 Series (Nehalem) based servers, where is the memory controller located?
A.processor socket
B.processor core
C.HyperTransport Bus
D.Front Side Bus
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-E28
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Virtualization Solutions)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
78 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-09-28

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NO.1 HP Adaptive Infrastructure is a component in what major HP strategy?
A. Infrastructure virtualization
B. Business Technology portfolio
C. Business Services Management
D. Business Information Optimization
Answer: A

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NO.2 Your analysis of a customer environment is that their IT departments prefer to dedicate one server per
application, regardless of application type. Which business problem does this opportunity present?
A. consolidation
B. network storage
C. business continuity
D. mainframe migration
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are the key features of the HP SAN Virtualization Services Platform (SVSP)? (Select two.)
A. synchronous remote replication
B. storage pooling across heterogeneous arrays
C. active/active failover on the Data Path Modules (DPM)
D. elimination o downtime to perform data migrations across arrays
E. the ability to import and export LUNs from the native array into SVSP
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 Greater than fifty percent of thin clients shipped by HP are deployed in support of which vendor's virtual
machine software solutions?
A. Citrix
B. RedHat
C. Microsoft
D. VMWare
Answer: D

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NO.5 Blade servers currently represent about what percentage of industry-wide x86 server revenue?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 35%
D. 45%
Answer: B

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NO.6 Power failures within the data center are best addressed by what type of solution?
A. network security
B. data consolidation
C. business continuity
D. software as a service
Answer: C

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NO.7 How would you best describe virtualization to a CEO focused on business issues?
A. It is an amalgamation of multiple network storage devices into a single unit.
B. The layering of applications allows computing resources to be distributed dynamically in real time.
C. It is the partitioning of a physical server into smaller virtual servers in support of business and IT
objectives.
D. It is an approach to IT that pools and shares resources so utilization is optimized and supply
automatically meets demand.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the fastest growing storage connectivity technology?
A. DAS
B. iSCSI
C. ESCON
D. Fibre Channel
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-Q03
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Integrity Server Solutions)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
60 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-09-28

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NO.1 How many processor cores are the maximum supported in the high-end HP Integrity Superdome
servers?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which Integrity servers benefit from the higher performance and greater availability of the HP sx2000
chipset? (Select two.)
A. HP Integrity rx2660
B. HP Integrity rx6600
C. HP Integrity rx8640
D. HP Integrity rx3600
E. HP Integrity Superdome
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 Which HP Utility Pricing Solution is appropriate for customers who want to pay for IT assets based upon
actual usage and do less capacity planning?
A. Sale lease-back
B. Metered capacity
C. Managed capacity
D. Short-term finance
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement is true about the roadmap for the HP Integrity server family?
A. It is tied closely to the roadmap for PA-RISC processors.
B. It is tied closely to the roadmap for the Intel Itanium processor.
C. It is tied to projected increases in power and cooling availability.
D. It is tied to the trend towards higher bandwidth single-core processors.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which statement is true of today's IT infrastructure? (Select two.)
A. Underutilized server capacity is no longer an issue.
B. Cost of operations is now the lowest portion of the IT budget.
C. The IT environment has become complex and difficult to maintain.
D. Energy needs for power and cooling are no longer concerns of the CIO.
E. There is a struggle to meet service level agreements for critical workloads.
Answer: C,E

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NO.6 Which is a benefit to HP Integrity server customers?
A. an increase in cable management complexity
B. energy efficiency, with up to 10% improvement
C. the highest level of availability for every application
D. simplicity and efficiency that results in lower TCO
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which messaging statement describes what HP Integrity servers deliver?
A. HP Integrity servers simply deliver more computing power.
B. HP Integrity servers always deliver availability, scalability, and virtualization.
C. HP Integrity servers deliver predictable, standards-based IT staff resources.
D. HP Integrity servers deliver maximum power using maximum resources.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which HP Integrity servers use the zx2 chipset and provide double chip spare memory? (Select two.)
A. rx2660
B. rx3600
C. rx7640
D. rx6600
E. rx8640
Answer: A,B

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Exam Code: HP3-024
Exam Name: HP (HP Color LaserJet 4700 series)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
30 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-09-28

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NO.1 Before performing an engine test on the HP Color LaserJet 4700ph+,________.
A. the printing device must be powered off
B. the printing device must be power-cycled
C. the output device connection cable must be detached from the printing device
D. the output device and output accessory bridge must be removed
Answer: B

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NO.2 Automatic calibration occurs for which events? Select THREE.
A. whenever the device comes out of power save mode
B. when the printer is powered on after having been powered down for longer than 20 seconds
C. whenever a brand new print cartridge is installed in the printer
D. when 1,000 pages have printed since the last calibration
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.3 When installing drum drive motors from service parts________.
A. the motors are optimized for any color and can be used with any color
B. each color (C, M, Y, K) has its own drum drive motor part number, optimized for that color
C. all motors must be replaced as a set
D. the fusible link burns up and resets the drum driver counters
Answer: A

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NO.4 The HP Color LaserJet 4700 automatically calibrates and cleans at certain times to maintain
optimum print quality. Which of the following conditions cause the device to perform a color-plane
registration (CPR)? Select THREE.
A. one or more print cartridges are installed that have not previously been installed in the printing device
B. 10,000 pages have printed since the last calibration
C. 'Full Calibrate Now' is requested through the control panel
D. the ETB is replaced
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 For what reason should you disassemble and then replace the paper feed assembly?
A. if repeated paper jams occur due to excessive paper skew
B. if replacing feed rollers and adjusting paper skew sensors do not solve repeated jam errors
C. if the mediasensor value no longer matches the value on the label located on the paper feed
assembly
D. the paper feed assembly can be replaced as a full unit but should never be disassembled
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP3-C27
Exam Name: HP (SMB Printing and Imaging sales)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
41 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-09-28

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NO.1 What has been the effect of the global economic downturn on printing and imaging? (Select two.)
A. Fewer pages are being printed.
B. Refilled and remanufactured ink cartridges have increased in quality.
C. All new product purchases are on hold.
D. Printing and imaging product lifecycles are longer.
E. Inkjet printers are replacing laser printers.
Answer: B, C

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NO.2 How can resellers use print management engagement to increase revenue and profit?
A. Resellers can up-sell from color printers to mono-only printers.
B. Resellers can move from transactional sales to selling service-based contracts.
C. Resellers can up-sell from HP Laser printer to HP Large Format printers.
D. Resellers can move from selling HP PCs and servers to selling HP ProCurve products.
Answer: C

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NO.3 According to HP and other market segmentations, how many employees would you expect to find in a
lower mid-market organization.?
A. 100 to 499 employees
B. 2000 to 2999 employees
C. 400 to 599 employees
D. 999 to1999 employees
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the prediction for the number of digitally printed pages as a percentage of all pages?
A. 70%
B. 90%
C. 10%
D. 0.5%
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the fundamental difference between the HP print business in the 1980s and their print business
today?
A. In the 1980s, HP business focused around the provision print services.
B. In the 1980s, HP business focused simply around the sale of printers.
C. In the 1980s, HP business focused around data center printing.
D. In the 1980s, HP business focused around printer support contracts.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-M39
Exam Name: HP (HP QuickTest Professional 10.0 Software)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
68 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-09-28

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NO.1 What are the advantages of automated testing? (Select three.)
A. easier
B. consistent
C. reusable
D. proactive
E. abstract
F. productive
Answer: BCF

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NO.2 What is a QuickTest Professional test comprised of.?
A. calls to actions
B. calls to actions (reusable only)
C. calls to QuickTest Professional tests
D. calls and copies of actions
Answer: A

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NO.3 How can you add recordable or nonrecordable operations to your test? (Select three.)
A. Use the Step Generator.
B. Insert through Keyword View.
C. Drag objects from the object repository.
D. Drag objects from the Active Screen.
E. Drag objects from Available Keywords.
F. Drag objects from the Data Table.
Answer: ABE

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NO.4 Which term is used to define the name QuickTest Professional assigns to a recorded object?
A. Physical Name
B. Object Name
C. Repository Name
D. Logical Name
Answer: D

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NO.5 During the planning phase, you decide to create multiple actions that can be combined and reused to
achieve testing goals.
Which element is critical for identifying the actions to be recorded and how to combine them?
A. input data
B. parameters
C. initial and end conditions
D. visual cues
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which QuickTest Professional feature displays the recorded steps in graphical format?
A. Data Table
B. Active Screen
C. Keyword View
D. Expert View
Answer: C

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NO.7 Click Next or More to continue. Click the Task button. Click on the timeout value for the
synchronization point defined in the script shown in the screenshot.
Answer:

NO.8 You record and save your test on a shared network drive as SampleWebTest.
What is created on the shared drive?
A. a file named SampleWebTest.qtp
B. a folder named SampleWebTest
C. a file named SampleWebTest_Action1
D. a temporary folder structure
Answer: B

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NO.9 In which Options tab can you set the option to minimize the space your stored test will require?
A. Active Screen
B. General
C. Run
D. Environment
Answer: A

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NO.10 How does QuickTest Professional identify each object you record?
A. by class and properties
B. by class and methods
C. by methods and properties
D. by class only
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which Active Screen capture level is the default setting?
A. Complete
B. Limited
C. Partial
D. Minimum
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which QuickTest Professional features can be customized using the Customize menu command?
(Select two.)
A. Menus
B. General options
C. Test Settings
D. Active Screen
E.Toolbars
Answer: AE

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NO.13 Which actions can you perform using the Active Screen? (Select two.)
A. Modify objects.
B. Insert standard checkpoints.
C. Insert XML checkpoints.
D. Insert transactions.
E.Insert steps.
Answer: BE

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NO.14 What are examples of a visual cue condition? (Select two.)
A. A button becomes visible.
B. A record is inserted in the database.
C. A progress bar displays.
D. A button becomes enabled.
E.A bitmap displays.
Answer: AD

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NO.15 Identify the available column names in the Keyword View. (Select four.)
A. value
B. documentation
C. object
D. record settings
E.property
F. method G. operation H. item
Answer: ABGH

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Exam Code: HP0-Y38
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Wireless Networks)
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50 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-09-28

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NO.1 A national real estate agency wants to deploy a wireless network for their employees in their small local
branch offices. The primary applications that will be used on the network include the transfer of
promotional material, which has a high amount of image and graphical data, and online meetings and
webcasts. The agency data has been growing so much that they recently upgraded their broadband
connection from a T3 to an OC-3 and the IT manager is worried that this is not sufficient. The IT manager
is not on site very often and stressed the importance of reliability by saying, "Time is money and quick
network access is very important.?
You visit one of the largest branch locations and discover that it consists of twelve 10x8 ft open cubicles.
You also discover several sources of interference while conducting a preliminary site survey. The
customer's standard security system operates in the 2.4GHz band, one neighboring outdoor 802.11a
WLAN, eight neighboring 802.11g deployments, and several users of Bluetooth headsets.
Which configuration should you recommend?
A. one access point set to 802.11n 40MHz channels in the 2.4GHz band
B. two access points set to 802.11n 20MHz channels in the 2.4GHz band
C. one access point set to 802.11n 40MHz channels in the 5GHz UNII 2 band
D. two access points set to 802.11n 40MHz channels in the 5GHz UNII 1 band
E. two access points set to 802.11n 20MHz channels in the 5GHz UNII 2 band
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are designing a customer's wireless network. What information is important for you to provide to
RF Planner during the initial phase of design? (Select three.)
A. cross floor coverage
B. wall/ceiling placement of access points
C. building material database
D. the plan for 802.11n coverage as well as 802.11a/b/g coverage
E. ceiling interference database
F. interference modeling of GSM and CDMA networks
G. capacity plan
Answer: ACD

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer is deploying 25 A-WA2620E access points (APs) on each floor of a building that has three
floors. Each floor has an A-WX5002 access controller (AC). You are deploying the first AP. The exhibit
shows the CLI commands you have entered on the AC for bringing up a new AP with serial number 200.
After approximately 30 seconds, the AP has not yet come online.
What is a possible cause of this delay?
A. The CLI service template commands are incorrect.
B. LWAPP is not installed.
C. The AP is updating its software configuration.
D. The ESS interface is not fully defined.
E. The AP information is incorrect.
F. The radio configuration assigned the wrong 802.11n channel parameters.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which type of packet does IACTP use to set up the data tunnel when the client is roaming between the
HA and the FA?
A. TCP
B. IAPP
C. Multicast
D. Broadcast
E. UDP
F. IPSec
Answer: E

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NO.5 A customer wants to extend a network between offices without installing underground lines or
extending overhead lines. Your solution for this customer will include Dynamic MESH. Which primary
factors should you consider for this wireless network? (Select two.)
A. distances between two points
B. type of network traffic the local mesh will handle
C. high-availability requirements
D. what channels the access point needs to use
E. length of cable needed to connect the antenna
Answer: AC

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Exam Code: HP2-Z19
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Network Security Solutions)
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121 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-09-28

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NO.1 Multiple user accounts can be created on an IPS device. Each can be assigned to one of three roles:
super-user, administrator, or operator. Which statements are true about these roles? (Select two.)
A. An administrator can reset the audit log.
B. A super-user can create new accounts and edit existing account passwords.
C. An operator is a view-only role.
D. Only the super-user can reboot an IPS.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 What is the serial console speed of an IPS?
A. 9600
B. 19200
C. 115,200
D. user configurable
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which HP E-Series switch models display the following prompt in the interface configuration context?
(Select two.)HP Switch(eth-A24)#
A. E8212 zl
B. E6600-24G
C. E5412-96G zl
D. E2910-24G al
E. E3500-48G-POE yl
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.4 A security administrator at a university has been tasked with identifying the TippingPoint IPS that
would best meet the university's needs. The university has a complex network, with a mixture of both fiber
and copper wiring. IPS protection must be provided for three copper segments and two fiber segments.
The aggregate bandwidth (with expansion capacity) is not expected to exceed 3Gbps over the next four
years.
Which TippingPoint IPS solution should the security administrator recommend?
A. 2 TippingPoint 330s and 1 TippingPoint 600E
B. TippingPoint 5000E or TippingPoint 5100N
C. TippingPoint SMS
D. TippingPoint 5100N only
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which E-Series CLI commands enable you to view all show commands available in the current context?
(Select two.)
A. Switch# show /?
B. Switch# show all
C. Switch# show help
D. Switch# show ?
E. Switch# show <tab>
F. Switch# help show
Answer: D,E

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NO.6 You are at the manager level prompt in the CLI of an HP E3500 yl switch. Which options are available at
this prompt? (Select two.)
A. assign IP address to VLAN interface
B. enable IP routing
C. restart the switch
D. disable ports
E. update software
Answer: C,E

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NO.7 By default, what is an IPS single super-user called?
A. By default, the single super-user is called root.
B. By default, the single super-user is called SuperUser.
C. By default, the single super-user is called admin.
D. There is no default user.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Refer to the exhibit below.
You have configured IP helper addresses for VLAN 5 and VLAN 6 on this HP E5406 zl switch. However,
users in these VLANs report that their computers are not receiving DHCP addresses. Which feature must
be enabled to address this problem?
A. DNS
B. DHCP relay
C. IP routing
D. DHCP snooping
Answer: B

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6.Port B1 on an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch is an untagged member of VLAN 155 and not a tagged
member of any VLAN. Port C1 is a tagged member of VLAN 155 and an untagged member of VLAN 100.
You issue the following command:
5406.l(config)# no vlan 155
Why do you receive the following prompt?
The following ports will be moved to the default VLAN:
B1Do you want to continue? [y/n]:
A. The CLI always issues this prompt when deleting a VLAN.
B. The CLI will not allow you to orphan a port.
C. The CLI will not delete a VLAN with any port membership.
D. All ports must be moved to the default VLAN before you can delete the VLAN.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which security technology requires that you set read/write community names?
A. SFTP
B. SSH
C. SNMP
D. HTTPS
E. SMTP
Answer: C

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NO.10 What does the Threat Management Center (TMC) allow you to do? (Select three.)
A. Download TOS images.
B. Access knowledgebase articles.
C. Remotely log in to your IPS.
D. Download Digital Vaccines.
E. Download custom Digital Vaccines.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.11 Which categories of routing protocols include RIP and OSPF? (Select two.)
A. exterior gateway
B. link state
C. label switching
D. distance vector
E. interior gateway
Answer: A,E

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NO.12 You make configuration changes to the running configuration of your HP E3500 yl switch. Which
command saves these changes to your startup configuration?
A. save running-config
B. copy running-config startup-config
C. write memory
D. write config
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which remote management interface on an E-Series switch can be secured by enabling Secure
Sockets Layer (SSL)?
A. console
B. menu
C. web management
D. Telnet
Answer: C

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NO.14 A security administrator for a TippingPoint IPS suspects that an employee has logged into the IPS and
altered its configuration. How can the security administrator analyze and undo all of the unauthorized
changes?
A. by reviewing the IPS system log, searching for filter hits from the employee
B. by reviewing the IPS audit log, filtering by the employee ¯ s use r na m e and / o r I P adress
C. by reviewing the configuration changes listed in the IPS alert log
D. by reviewing the IPS block log (the employee would have been blocked)
Answer: B

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NO.15 What are benefits of implementing Secure Socket Shell (SSH) for remote management of HP switches?
(Select two.)
A. user accounting
B. encryption of management traffic
C. stronger passwords
D. enforcement of management VLAN
E. secure authentication
F. encryption of all traffic
Answer: B,E

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NO.16 You must update the software on an HP E3500 yl switch. Which devices can be sources for the copy
command? (Select two.)
A. USB flash drive
B. management workstation hard drive
C. TFTP server
D. FTP server
E. Compact Flash card
Answer: A,C

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NO.17 Refer to the exhibit below.
What is indicated by this entry in the IP route table of an HP E8212 zl switch?
A. The switch has been configured with an ACL that blocks communications with the loopback interfaces.
B. The switch does not permit communications with any loopback interface.
C. Traffic to this interface is rejected with the single exception of traffic to the host address of the switch ¯ s
loopback interface (127.0.0.1/ 32).
D. A loopback interface is configured with 127.0.0.0.
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is the effect of the following commands entered at the CLI of an HP E8212 zl switch with routing
and RIP enabled?E8212(rip)# redistribute ospf
A. The switch will filter OSPF routes from RIP updates received from peers.
B. The switch will include routes learned through OSPF in all RIP updates.
C. The switch will include routes learned through RIP in all OSPF link-state messages.
D. The switch will give preference to OSPF routes over RIP routes in its route table.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Refer to the exhibit below.
You enter the following command at the switch ¯ s C L I: E5406 ( v l a-100)# no untag a24
Why does this command fail?
A. Port A24 is not a member of VLAN 100.
B. Port A24 must be a member of at least one VLAN.
C. VLAN 100 must have at least one port member.
D. no untag a24 is an invalid CLI command.
Answer: B

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NO.20 How can the TippingPoint Threat Management Center (TMC) be accessed? (Select three.)
A. directly by your SMS, if your SMS has a valid TMC username/password
B. by anyone with a browser and valid TMC username/password
C. using an FTP client
D. directly by your IPS
E. directly by your SMS, as your SMS does not need a TMC username/password
Answer: B,D,E

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