2014年4月30日星期三

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NO.1 A web application allows the HTML title banner to be set using a context initialization parameter called
titlestr.
Which two properly set the title in the scenario.? (Choose two)
A. <title> $ {titlestr} </title>
B. <title> $ {initparam.titlestr}</title>
C. <title> $ {param [0]. titlestr} </title>
D. <title> $ {paramValues.titleStr} </title>
E. <title> $ {initParam [ titleStr ] } </title>
F. <title> $ {servletParams.titleStr} </title>
G. <title> $ {request.get ( titleStr ) } </title>
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 Given the element from the web application deployment descriptor:
<jsp
property
group>
<url
pattern>/main/page1.jsp</url
pattern>
<scripting
invalid>true</scripting
invalid>
</jsp property group>
And given that /main/page1.jsp contains:
<% int i = 12; %>
<b> <%= i %> </b>
What is the result?
A. <b> <b>
B. <b> l2 </b>
C. The JSP fails to execute.
D. <% int i = 12 %>
<b> <%= i % > < b>
Answer: C

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NO.3 Given: Which three EL expressions, inserted at line 16, are valid and evaluate to d ? (Choose three)
A. ${map.c}
B. ${map.[c]}
C. ${map.[ c ]}
D. ${map.map.b}
E. ${map.[map.b]}
F. ${map. (map.b)}
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.4 You are building a dating service web site. Part of the form to submit a client's profile is a group of radio
buttons for the person's hobbies:
<input type = radio
name = hobbyEnum
value = HIKING > Hiking <br>
<input type = radio
name = hobbyEnum
value = SKING > Sking <br>
<input type = radio
name = hobbyEnum
value = SCUBA > SCUBA <br>
<! - - and more options - - >>
After the user submits this form, a confirmation screen is displayed with these hobbies listed. Assume that
an application-scoped hobbies, holds a map between the hobby enumerated type and the display name.
Which EL code snippet will display Nth element of the user's selected hobbles?
A. ${hobbies [hobbyEnum[N]}
B. ${hobbies [paramValues.hobbyEnum[N]]}
C. ${hobbies [paramValues @ hobbyEnum
@N]
D. ${hobbies.get(paramValues.hobbyEnum[N]) }
E. ${hobbies [paramValues.hobbyEnum.get(N)] }
Answer: B

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NO.5 Given:
<%
request.setAttribute ( vals , new String[] { 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 });
request.setAttribute ( index , 2 );
%>
<% - - insert code here - - %>
Which three EL expressions, inserted at line 15, are valid and evaluate to 3 ? (Choose three)
A. ${vals.2}
B. ${vals [ 2 ] }
C. ${vals.index}
D. ${vals[index] }
E. ${vals} [index]
F. ${vals. (vals.index) }
G. ${vals [vals[index-1]] }
Answer: B,D,G

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NO.1 What is the correct definition of the persistent state of a packaged variable?
A. It is a private variable defined in a procedure or function within a package body whose value is
consistent within a user session.
B. It is a public variable in a package specification whose value is consistent within a user session.
C. It is a private variable in a package body whose value is consistent across all current active sessions.
D. It is a public variable in a package specification whose value is always consistent across all current
active sessions.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two tasks should be created as functions instead of as procedures? (Choose two.)
A. reference host or bind variables in a PL7SQL block of code
B. tasks that compute and return multiple values to the calling environment
C. tasks that compute a value that must be returned to the calling environment
D. tasks performed in SQL that increase data independence by processing complex data analysis within
the Oracle server, rather than by retrieving the data into an application
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Which statements are true about PL/SQL procedures? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Users with definer's rights who are granted access to a procedure that updates a table must be granted
access to the table itself.
B. Reuse of parsed PL/SQL code that becomes available in the shared SQL area of the server avoids the
parsing overhead of SQL statements at run time.
C. Depending on the number of calls, multiple copies of the procedure are loaded into memory for
execution by multiple users to speed up performance.
D. A PL/SQL procedure executing on the Oracle database can call an external procedure or function that
is written in a different programming language, such as C or Java.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the customer table.
Examine the following trigger code:
What is the outcome when the above trigger is compiled?
A. It compiles successfully.
B. It gives an error because the when condition is not valid.
C. It gives an error because when cannot be used for row-level triggers.
D. It gives an error because the statements under updating are not valid.
E. It gives an error because the new qualifier in the when clause requires a colon prefix.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Examine the following command:
SQL>ALTER SESSION
SET plsql_warnings *
'enable:severe',
'enable:performance',
'ERROR:05003';
What is the implication of the above command?
A. It issues a warning whenever ERROR: 05003 occur during compilation.
B. It causes the compilation to fail whenever the warning ERROR.05003 occurs.
C. It issues warnings whenever the code causes an unexpected action or wrong results performance
problems.
D. It causes the compilation to fail whenever the code gives wrong results or contains statements that are
never executed.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Examine the following block of code: Which line in the above code would result in errors upon
execution?
A. line 5
B. line 8
C. line 2
D. line 7
Answer: B

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NO.7 View the exhibit and examine the structure of the products table.
Examine the following code
Which statement is true when the procedure DELETE_DETAILS is invoked?
A. It executes successfully but no error messages get recorded in the DEBUG_OUTPUT table
B. It executes successfully and any error messages get recorded in the DEBUG_OUTPUT table.
C. It gives an error because PRAGMA AUTONOMOUSJTRANSACTION can be used only in packaged
procedures.
D. It gives an error because procedures containing PRAGMA AUTONOMOUS_TRANSACTION cannot
be called from the exception section.
Answer: A

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NO.8 View the Exhibit to examine the PL/SQL code:
SREVROUPUT is on for the session. Which statement Is true about the output of the PL/SQL block?
A. The output is x = y.
B. It produces an error.
C. The output Is x != y.
D. The output Is Can't tell if x and y are equal or not.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which statement is true about Oracle Net Listener?
A. It acts as the listening endpoint for the Oracle database instance for all local and non-local user
connections.
B. A single listener can service only one database instance and multiple remote client connections.
C. Service registration with the listener is performed by the process monitor (PMON) process of
each database instance.
D. The listener.ora configuration file must be configured with one or more listening protocol
addresses to allow remote users to connect to a database instance.
E. The listener.ora configuration file must be located in the ORACLE_HOME/network/admin directly.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Supported services, that is, the services to which the listener forwards client
requests, can be configured in the listener.ora file or this information can be dynamically
registered with the listener. This dynamic registration feature is called service registration.
The registration is performed by the PMON process-an instance background process-of
each database instance that has the necessary configuration in the database initialization
parameter file. Dynamic service registration does not require any configuration in the
listener.ora file.
Incorrect:
Not B:Service registration reduces the need for the SID_LIST_listener_name parameter
setting, which specifies information about the databases served by the listener, in the
listener.ora file.
Note:
*Oracle Net Listener is a separate process that runs on the database server computer. It
receives incoming client connection requests and manages the traffic of these requests to
the database server.
*A remote listener is a listener residing on one computer that redirects connections to a
database instance on another computer. Remote listeners are typically used in an Oracle
Real Application Clusters (Oracle RAC) environment. You can configure registration to
remote listeners, such as in the case of Oracle RAC, for dedicated server or shared server
environments.

NO.2 In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable databases (PDB), users
complain about performance degradation.
How does real-time Automatic database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) check performance
degradation and provide solutions?
A. It collects data from SGA and compares it with a preserved snapshot.
B. It collects data from SGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.
C. It collects data from SGA and compares it with the latest snapshot.
D. It collects data from both SGA and PGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Note: *The multitenant architecture enables an Oracle database to function as a multitenant
container database (CDB) that includes zero, one, or many customer-created pluggable databases
(PDBs). A PDB is a portable collection of schemas, schema objects, and nonschema objects that
appears to an Oracle Net client as a non-CDB. All Oracle databases before Oracle Database 12c were
non-CDBs. *The System Global Area (SGA) is a group of shared memory areas that are dedicated to
an Oracle "instance" (an instance is your database programs and RAM).
*The PGA (Program or Process Global Area) is a memory area (RAM) that stores data and control
information for a single process.

NO.3 Your multitenant container (CDB) containing three pluggable databases (PDBs) is running in
ARCHIVELOG mode. You find that the SYSAUX tablespace is corrupted in the root container.
The steps to recover the tablespace are as follows:
1.Mount the CDB.
2.Close all the PDBs.
3.Open the database.
4.Apply the archive redo logs.
5.Restore the data file.
6.Take the SYSAUX tablespace offline.
7.Place the SYSAUX tablespace offline.
8.Open all the PDBs with RESETLOGS.

NO.4 Which two statements are true about the use of the procedures listed in the
v$sysaux_occupants.move_procedure column?
A. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data to the SYSAUX
tablespace from its current tablespace.
B. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data from the SYSAUX
tablespace to another tablespace.
C. All the components may be moved into SYSAUX tablespace.
D. All the components may be moved from the SYSAUX tablespace.
Answer: B,D

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Explanation:
V$SYSAUX_OCCUPANTS displays SYSAUX tablespace occupant information.
MOVE_PROCEDURE:Name of the move procedure; null if not applicable
For example, the tables and indexes that were previously owned by the system user can now be
specified for a SYSAUX tablespace. You can query the v$sysaux_occupants view to find the exact
components stored within the SYSAUX tablespace.

NO.5 You plan to use the In Database Archiving feature of Oracle Database 12c, and store rows that
are inactive for over three months, in Hybrid Columnar Compressed (HCC) format.
Which three storage options support the use of HCC?
A. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of Exadata Grid Disks.
B. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of LUNS on any Storage Area Network array
C. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of any zero padded NFS-mounted files
D. Database files stored in ZFS and accessed using conventional NFS mounts.
E. Database files stored in ZFS and accessed using the Oracle Direct NFS feature
F. Database files stored in any file system and accessed using the Oracle Direct NFS feature
G. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of LUNs on Pillar Axiom Storage arrays
Answer: A,E,G

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Explanation:
HCC requires the use of Oracle Storage - Exadata(A), Pillar Axiom(G)or Sun ZFS Storage Appliance
(ZFSSA).
Note: *Hybrid Columnar Compression, initially only available on Exadata, has been extended to
supportPillar Axiom and Sun ZFS Storage Appliance (ZFSSA) storage when used with Oracle
Database Enterprise Edition 11.2.0.3 and above *Oracle offers the ability to manage NFS using a
feature called Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS). Oracle Direct NFS implements NFS V3 protocol within the
Oracle database kernel itself. Oracle Direct NFS client overcomes many of the challenges associated
with using NFS with the Oracle Database with simple configuration, betterperformance than
traditional NFS clients, and offers consistent configuration across platforms.

NO.6 What are three purposes of the RMAN "FROM" clause?
A. to support PUSH-based active database duplication
B. to support synchronization of a standby database with the primary database in a Data
environment
C. To support PULL-based active database duplication
D. To support file restores over the network in a Data Guard environment
E. To support file recovery over the network in a Data Guard environment
Answer: B,C,E

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Explanation:
E:
*With a control file autobackup, RMAN can recover the database even if the current
control file, recovery catalog, and server parameter file are inaccessible.
*RMAN uses a recovery catalog to track filenames for all database files in a Data Guard
environment. A recovery catalog is a database schema used by RMAN to store metadata
about one or more Oracle databases. The catalog also records where the online redo logs,
standby redo logs, tempfiles, archived redo logs, backup sets, and image copies are
created.

NO.7 You are administering a database stored in Automatic Storage Management (ASM). You
use RMAN to back up the database and the MD_BACKUP command to back up the ASM metadata
regularly. You lost an ASM disk group DG1 due to hardware failure.
In which three ways can you re-create the lost disk group and restore the data?
A. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore metadata for an existing disk group by passing the
existing disk group name as an input parameter and use RMAN to restore the data.
B. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed-up
disk group and data on the disk group.
C. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore the disk group with the changed disk group
specification, failure group specification, name, and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the
data.
D. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed-up
disk group name and same set of disks and failure group configuration, and use RMAN to restore
the data.
E. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore both the metadata and data for the failed disk group.
F. Use the MKDG command to add a new disk group DG1 with the same or different specifications
for failure group and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the data.
Answer: C,E,F

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Explanation:
Note:
*The md_restore command allows you to restore a disk group from the metadata created
by the md_backup command.
/md_restore Command
Purpose
This command restores a disk group backup using various options that are described in
this section.
/In the restore mode md_restore, it re-create the disk group based on the backup file with
all user-defined templates with the exact configuration as the backuped disk group. There
are several options when restore the disk group
full - re-create the disk group with the exact configuration
nodg - Restores metadata in an existing disk group provided as an input parameter
newdg - Change the configuration like failure group, disk group name, etc..
*The MD_BACKUP command creates a backup file containing metadata for one or more
disk groups. By default all the mounted disk groups are included in the backup file which is
saved in the current working directory. If the name of the backup file is not specified, ASM names
the file AMBR_BACKUP_INTERMEDIATE_FILE.

NO.8 Your multitenant container (CDB) contains two pluggable databases(PDB), HR_PDB and
ACCOUNTS_PDB, both of which use the CDB tablespace. The temp file is called temp01.tmp.
A user issues a query on a table on one of the PDBs and receives the following error:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01565: error in identifying file '/u01 /app/oracle/oradata/CDB1 /temp01.tmp'
ORA-27037: unable to obtain file status
Identify two ways to rectify the error.
A. Add a new temp file to the temporary tablespace and drop the temp file that that produced the
error.
B. Shut down the database instance, restore the temp01.tmp file from the backup, and then restart
the database.
C. Take the temporary tablespace offline, recover the missing temp file by applying redo logs, and
then bring the temporary tablespace online.
D. Shutdown the database instance, restore and recover the temp file from the backup, and then
open the database with RESETLOGS.
E. Shut down the database instance and then restart the CDB and PDBs.
Answer: C,E

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Explanation:
* Because temp files cannot be backed up and because no redo is ever generated for them, RMAN
never restores or recovers temp files. RMAN does track the names of temp files, but only so that it
can automatically re-create them when needed.
*If you use RMAN in a Data Guard environment, then RMAN transparently converts primary control
files to standby control files and vice versa. RMAN automatically updates file names for data files,
online redo logs, standby redo logs, and temp files when you issue RESTORE and RECOVER.

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NO.1 The columns CUST_CITY, CUST_STATE_PROVINCE, and COUNTRY_ID are frequently used
together in the WHERE clause of the queries. The CUSTOMERS table is a big table with 20 GB of data.
You notice that the selectivity for these three columns varies from the selectivity that the optimizer
calculates.
What would you recommend to influence the selectivity calculated by the optimizer?
A. creating function-based indexes by concatenating all the columns
B. updating histogram statistics for these columns by using the DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS
procedure
C. using the DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS function to create a virtual column and create
index on the virtual column
D. using the DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS function to create a virtual column and the
DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS procedure to collect statistics on the virtual column
ANSWER: D

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NO.2 You are working on a decision support system (DSS). The index is available on the COUNTRY_ID
column of the CUSTOMERS table.
View the Exhibit and examine the parameter settings and the query execution plan.
Why is the query using a full table scan instead of an index scan?
A. because the histogram statistics for the COUNTRY_ID column are not updated
B. because the index statistics for the index on the COUNTRY_ID column are not current
C. because the DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT initialization parameter is set to a higher value
D. because the optimizer predicts that most of the blocks in the table are accessed. Therefore, it uses a
full table scan, even though indexes are available.
ANSWER: D

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NO.3 A batch workload that historically completed in the maintenance window between 10:00 PM and
midnight is currently showing poor performance and completing at 2 AM.
To help in the diagnosis of the performance degradation, the senior DBA in your organization asks you to
execute the awrddrpt.sql script to produce a Compare Periods report.
Which two statements are true about the report produced by this script? (Choose two.)
A. It is refreshed automatically based on the moving window baseline.
B. It compares details between any two selected time periods of the same duration.
C. It normalizes the statistics by the amount of time spent on the database for each time period.
D. It compares details between two consecutive time periods of the same or different durations and is
refreshed every 60 minutes.
ANSWER: BC

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NO.4 View Exhibit1 to examine the description of the CUSTOMERS table.
The CUSTOMERS table has been updated heavily today. In a frequently used SQL statement, you notice
that estimated rows and the actual number of rows fetched differ greatly. The COUNTRY_ID column has
an index.
View Exhibit2 and examine the query execution plan.
What would you recommend to improve the optimizer's estimation?
A. setting the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to ALL
B. setting the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to FALSE
C. creating extended statistics for the CUST_LAST_NAME, CUST_ID, and CUST_TOTAL columns
D. updating the statistics for the CUSTOMERS table by using the
DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS
procedure
ANSWER: D

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NO.5 Identify two correct statements about the Active Session History (ASH) data. (Choose two.)
A.A part of SGA memory is used to store ASH data as rolling buffer.
B.The ASH data can be analyzed between any two small time intervals.
C.All ASH data in memory are flushed to disk by MMON in every 3 seconds.
D.All ASH data in memory are flushed to disk by MMNL process whenever the buffer is full.
ANSWER: AB

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NO.6 View Exhibit1 to examine the description of the CUSTOMERS table.
You observed that optimizer selectivity is not accurate when the CUST_STATE_PROVINCE and
COUNTRY_ID columns are used together in the WHERE clause of a query.
View Exhibit2 to examine the query execution plan and the commands executed to gather the statistics.
The optimizer predicts that 20 rows will be processed rather than the 3,341 rows, which is the actual
number of rows returned from the table.
What can you do to make the optimizer detect the actual number of rows?
A. Set the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to ALL.
B. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to FALSE.
C. Create extended statistics for the CUST_STATE_PROVINCE and COUNTRY_ID columns.
D. Increase the STALE_PERCENT value for the CUSTOMERS table by using the
DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS procedure.
ANSWER: C

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NO.7 You are working on an online transaction processing (OLTP) system. You detected free buffer waits
events for your database instance running in a machine that has multiple CPUs. You increased the
database buffer cache size as the first step. After a few hours of work on the database, further
investigation shows that the same event is being recorded.
What would be your next step to avoid this event in future?
A. Decrease the value of the DBWR_IO_SLAVES parameter.
B. Set the USE_INDIRECT_DATA_BUFFERS parameter to TRUE.
C. Increase the value of the DB_WRITER_PROCESSES parameter.
D. Increase the value of the DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT parameter.
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NO.8 After running SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA), you observe a few regressed SQL statements in the
SPA output. Identify the two actions that you would suggest for these regressed SQL statements.
(Choose two.)
A.Running SQL Access Advisor
B.Adding them to SQL Plan Baseline
C.Submitting them to SQL Tuning Advisor
D.Running Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
ANSWER: BC

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NO.1 You are working with a customer that has had Primavera P6 running in a global instance for
four years
the customer has asked you to come in and review the instance to identity opportunities for
optimizing the
system. As you look into the coding libraries, you see much duplication of project codes. You
recommend
that the customer come to consensus on the duplicate codes and values, and then eliminate the
redundant codes.
What functionality should you utilize to minimize the potential disruption to the user base?
A. Send out communication that the codes will be eliminated.
B. Eliminate the codes and manage usage issues by exception.
C. Document, usage of each code and value in filters and views.
D. Merge the codes rather than eliminating them.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Identify one filter enhancement in P6 R8.
A. Apply multiple filters simultaneously
B. Create filters with no more than three criteria
C. Cut, Copy, and paste filters
D. Assign filters to unique, single activity views
Answer: D

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NO.3 Calculated project user-defined fields __________and__________.
A. are created by system administrators
B. are managed by Configuration Management
C. are associated with formulas
D. are viewable in either the web interface or client
E. are defined in the web interface and only viewable in the web interface
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NO.4 The Open Requests for Resource's portlet lists unstaffed assignments involving roles on the
selected
role team. Identify two ways that the portlet display can be organized.
A. Role by Project
B. Role by Resource
C. Project by Role
D. Resource by Project
E. Resource by Role
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Identify the business case that would support the creation of OBS elements to align with
WBS
elements within individual project plans.
A. Legal/regulatory requirements that prohibit users from seeing data across functional areas
maintaining
smaller sets of project data
B. Mitigate the risk of significantly variant project management skill levels across an organization
C. Large projects with multiple cross-functional learns that will be responsible for
updating/maintaining
one set of project data
D. Supporting data export/import process to minimize risk of degrading schedule quality
Answer: C

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NO.6 Identify the true statement regarding currencies.
A. Currencies are predefined at installation.
B. Exchange rates are automatically updated monthly.
C. P6 supports an unlimited number of currencies.
D. US dollars is the only valid currency for financial transactions.
Answer: C

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NO.7 You are a portfolio manager, and a filter has been set to identity and assign projects to your
portfolio.
You are in Primavera P6 EPPM web interface.
How could you be certain that the list of projects in your portfolio is complete?
A. By manually hiding projects
B. By manually adding new projects
C. By manually refreshing the filter
D. By manually updating projects
Answer: C

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NO.8 A Physical % complete activity has an original duration of 10, and a remaining duration of 10.
The actual
start is assigned to the activity. Physical % is updated to equal 80%.
What is the remaining duration for this activity?
A. 80
B. 10
C. 2
D. 8
Answer: D

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NO.1 What is a relationship in UML 2.0.?
A. the state of being related
B. an element that has no derived union
C. an element that has no derived composition
D. an element that must have two owned elements
E. an element that specifies a connection between elements
Answer: E

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NO.2 What does the arrow end of a dependency relationship indicate?
A. more general classifier
B. element initiates communication
C. whole in a whole-part relationship
D. client element is affected by a change in the supplier element
E. supplier element is unaffected by a change in the client element
Answer: E

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NO.3 What is an expression in UML 2.0?
A. comment placed on a diagram
B. symbol or symbols signifying a set of value
C. graphical addition to a diagramming element
D. language-specific string used to describe the meaning of a diagram
E. language-specific text string used to describe the contents of a diagram
Answer: B

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NO.4 What statements are true of the <<it>>endency in the exhibit? (Choose two)
A. X can access only the baz property of W.
B. X can access the baz and quux properties of W.
C. X can access only the quux property of W.
D. W can access only the foo property of X.
E. W can access the foo and bar properties of X.
F. W can access only the bar property of X.
Answer: B,F

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NO.5 What is an element in UML 2.0?
A. member of a set
B. instance of a class
C. constituent of a model
D. abstract metaclass with only one superclass
E. substance not separable by ordinary chemical means
Answer: C

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NO.6 A property is a feature that can be represented in what ways? ose two)
A. as an association
B. as an association end
C. as an attribute in a class
D. as an operation in a class
E. as an indication of whether the feature is public or private
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 What is the meaning of the subsets constraint in the diagram?
A. D is a subclass of B.
B. D contains a subset of instances of C.
C. The collection of b is a subset of the collection of d for each A.
D. The collection of d is a subset of the collection of b for each C.
E. The collection of c is a subset of the collection of b for each D.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is true about a comment in UML 2.0? (Choose two)
A. is shown as a note symbol
B. must be attached to at most one element
C. contains only machine-readable symbols
D. can be attached to more than one element
E. connections are always shown with a dashed line
Answer: A,D

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2014年4月29日星期二

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NO.1 Which of the following allows for the testing of Classic rule sets before the rules development
process is complete?
A. Rules editor
B. Rule group
C. Rules simulation environment
D. Rule list group
E. Loader
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two of the following must be present in a Classic rule set?
A. One main rule group
B. One main rule list group
C. One main objective list group
D. One main sub-rule set
E. One main objective group
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 Which two of the following are displayed within the Smart Panel of the Curam user
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interface?
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C. Pods
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Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Which three of the following are types of action menu in the Cam user interface?Which three
of the following are types of action menu in the Curam user interface?
A. Toggle
B. Banner
C. List
D. Page
E. Tab
F. Spin box
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.5 Which three of the following are the three major components of the Cam user
interface?Which three of the following are the three major components of the Curam user interface?
A. Calendar icon
B. Shortcuts panel
C. Dropdown toggle
D. Application banner
E. Application tabs
F. Help icon
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.6 Which three of the following are components of an application tab in the Cam user
interface?Which three of the following are components of an application tab in the Curam user
interface?
A. Page group navigation bar
B. Application sections
C. Modal dialog
D. Shortcuts panel
E. Context panel
F. Navigation bar
Answer: A,E,F

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NO.7 Which of the following statements about sub-rule sets is true?
A. They are reusable subsets of rule list groups
B. They enable the ability to define, maintain, and execute rules over time
C. They are outcomes of passing eligibility
D. They are reusable subsets of objectives
E. They are reusable subsets of rules
Answer: E

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NO.8 Cam raises which of the following to inform the workflow management system that a task has
been completed?Curam raises which of the following to inform the workflow management system
that a task has been completed?
A. Task
B. Process instance
C. Event
D. Workflow data object
E. Activity
Answer: C

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NO.1 A midsized customer is looking to simplify their x86 and UNIX environment and move in to a
private cloud. They currently have two POWER7 720's running various business applications and
four x3550 servers hosting exchange and web front ends for the applications on the POWER
systems. Which IBM software is selected by default when choosing a PureFlex System Standard
to enable cloud services?
A. ISDM
B. Smart Cloud Entry
C. Smart Cloud Enterprise
D. DB2 Universal Database
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following tools is available for IBM BladeCenter that allows direct power
monitoring
by IBM Systems Director through the AMM?
A. Integrated Management Module (IMM)
B. Active Energy Manager (AEM)
C. Tivoli Provisioning Manager (TPM)
D. Energy Monitoring and Control (EMC)
Answer: B

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NO.3 A System x Sales Expert is discussing PureFlex with a System x customer. The customer asks
about how a PureFlex differs from their currently installed BladeCenter solution. Which of the
following best describes PureFlex?
A. A fully integrated non-virtualized infrastructure of server, storage and networking for database
applications
B. A fully integrated and open infrastructure for flexibility with integrated automation and
optimization expertise
C. A set of independently sold components comprising server, storage and networking, integrated
by the customer
D. A solution encompasing integration of any IBM server, storage and networking components,
customized for a specific application
Answer: B

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NO.4 A PureFlex prospect is concerned about rack capacity on a single rack configuration. Which of
the
following is the maximum number of PureFlex chassis that fit in this configuration?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.5 You are meeting with a customer CIO. You have done research on the company and the
direction
the company is heading which is to reduce cost through automation. The proposal is geared to
saving costs for the company over several years through reduced acquisition costs over time.
However, the company needs to make a substantial upfront investment. Which of the following
questions determine if your proposal meets the company's objectives?
A. Is IRR more important than TCO?
B. What payback period do you use?
C. How important is operational efficiency?
D. What discount rate do you use for projects?
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer is planning to configure call home for their small group of managed systems. They
have five windows systems and five ESXi systems on System x3650 M4. Which of the following is
the best IBM tool to configure call home in this environment?
A. IMM V2
B. Systems Director 6.3.1 or later
C. Dynamic System Analysis
D. Service and Support Manager
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer wants to manage their VMware ESXi environment. Which of the following is a
correct
option for this environment?
A. DCOM
B. Platform Agent
C. Common Agent
D. IBM Upward Integration for VMware vCenter
Answer: D

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NO.8 The IT department of an enterprise customer that has grown through mergers and
acquisitions is
evaluating systems management solutions to manage their existing IBM iSeries Servers, IBM
Power Systems, BladeCenter, Windows, Linux, and AIX servers. The goal is to not only monitor
the hardware and operating systems, but also provide performance trending. Which of the
following IBM solutions will address their needs?
A. Tivoli Monitoring
B. Systems Director
C. Flex Systems Manager
D. Maximo Asset Management
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which is the appropriate qualifying question for a prospect for the IBM Algorithmics Actuarial
& Financial Modeler?
A. Are you struggling to adapt your current actuarial models to address new business requirements?
B. Are you building an internal model for Economic Capital or Solvency II?
C. What are your plans for consolidating input data from various systems'?
D. What methodology do you use to aggregate market and non-market risk?
Answer: B

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Algorithmics Actuarial and Financial Modeling provides a range of business benefits, including:
*Advanced actuarial modeling to undertake the full spectrum of global actuarial
calculations, and address the challenges of 'real-world', principles-based modeling.
Supports regulatory compliance including Solvency II and other regimes.
*Scalable modeling and production infrastructure enables full transparency, audit, workflow
and control over the modeling process.
*Critical decision support enables more effective, risk-informed business strategies.
*Helps reduce actuarial costs and optimize ease of use with swift implementation and processing
speeds.
Note:
*Supports regulatory compliance
Enhances confidence with a secure modeling and production environment that supports
compliance across a range of risk-based regulatory and other supervisory regimes,
including Solvency II and IFRS.

NO.2 What is the product at the core of the IBM Algorithmics Economic Capital and Solvency II:
Compliance and Reporting Edition?
A. Netteza
B. IBM Algorithmics Actuarial & Financial Modeler
C. Collateral Management
D. Open Pages for Insurance Risk
Answer: B

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Compliance and Reporting Edition *Offers a pre-configured, robust and rapid implementation
solution for Solvency II that focuses on a Standard Formula approach. Provides you with the
capabilities of Algo Financial Modeler, a powerful actuarial and financial modeling engine, combined
with a workflow, governance and reporting tool to deliver an end-to-end solution for Solvency II
*Algo Financial Modeler can either calculate liability cashflows or act as an aggregation layer to
consolidate cashflows generated by existing actuarial systems. *Offers the flexibility to scale up to
the more advanced feature set of the Enterprise Edition to meet the challenges of changing
business requirements and growth.

NO.3 Which one of the following is the key legislative driver for insurance companies and pension
funds to improve their risk management processes?
A. Basle II
B. Basle III
C. Solvency II
D. Dodd Frank
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Dodd-Frank:made changes in the American financial regulatory environment
that affect all federal financial regulatory agencies and almost every part of the nation's financial
services industry.
Incorrect:
Not A:Basel II, initially published in June 2004, was intended to create an international
standard for banking regulators to control how much capital banks need to put aside to
guard against the types of financial and operational risks banks (and the whole economy) face.
Not B:Basel III (or the Third Basel Accord) is a global, voluntary regulatory standard on
bank capital adequacy, stress testing and market liquidity risk.
Not C: The Solvency II Directive 2009/138 /EC is an EU Directive that codifies and harmonises the EU
insurance regulation.

NO.4 Which risk management technique is currently the main motivation for pension funds
toacquirenew risk management systems?
A. Operational Risk
B. Liability hedging strategy
C. Corporate counter party risk
D. Sovereign debt risk
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Pension funds currently face a multitude of challenges and risks. We believe liability hedging (also
known as liability matching) is an effective way to help de-risk a fund.

NO.5 Which type of global insurance company must comply with the regulations introduced by
Solvency II?
A. European-based Life insurer with GPW of less than 5M Euros
B. A Tokyo-based multi-line insurer with an open market value of more than 100M Euros
C. A London-based multi-line insurer with GPW of 10M Euros
D. A North American based Property & Casualty Insurer with GPW of S10M
Answer: C

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*Solvency II is an EU legislative programme to be implemented in all 27 Member States, including
the UK. It introduces a new, harmonised EU-wide insurance regulatory regime. The legislation
replaces 13 existing EU insurance directives.
*The Solvency II Directive 2009/138 /EC is an EU Directive that codifies and harmonises the EU
insurance regulation. Primarily this concerns the amount of capital that EU insurance companies
must hold to reduce the risk of insolvency.

NO.6 Which of these C-level executives would be a key influencer for the selection of a Solvency II
Compliance Solution?
A. Senior Vice President of Global Sales
B. Chief Marketing Officer
C. Vice President of European Sales
D. Chief Investment Officer
Answer: C

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NO.1 A developer must set up a rule project. The developer has received three Java archive
(.jar) files. The
first .jar file contains information related to the input parameter. The second .jar file contains
information
related to the output parameter. The third .jar file contains utility methods that are not used by
the rules or
by the other two .jar files. To create the BOM in the rule project, the developer should add:
A. two .jar files to the XOM and create one BOM entry.
B. two .jar files to the XOM and create two BOM entries.
C. all three .jar files to the XOM and create one BOM entry.
D. all three .jar files to the XOM and create three BOM entries.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A developer is implementing a new Business Rule Management System. The
requirements say that the
rules should be valid for specific periods of time and no additional rule properties are
required.
At a minimum, the developer should use:
A. the default extension model.
B. the plug-in extension model.
C. a specific extension data file.
D. a new extension model and new extension data file.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A company has a non-static BOM method void addLine(OrderLine line, String
comment)in class Order.
Rule writers should be presented with the action phrase "add an item to an order with
comment a string".
How should a developer verbalize this method.?
A. add <0, an item> to <this> with comment <1, a string>
B. add <line, "an item"> to <this> with comment <comment>
C. add {0, "an item"} to {this} with comment {1}
D. add {line, "an item"} to {this} with comment {comment}
Answer: C

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NO.4 The development team of a company needs to deploy their business rules in a testing
environment and
a production environment. Rules with status "Defined" should be deployed to the testing
environment,
while rules with status "Verified" should be deployed to the production environment.
What should the developer do to satisfy this requirement?
A. Create one project with one ruleset extractor based on a dynamic query, which takes rule
status as a
parameter in the Ruleset Export wizard.
B. Create one project with two ruleset extractors based on two queries.
C. Create one project with two ruleset extractors based on two validator classes.
D. Create two rule projects, one for rules with status "Defined" and the other for rules with
status
"Verified".
Answer: B

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NO.5 The validation team is complaining because the WSDL generated by the Transparent
Decision Service
is incomplete and does not allow for execution. When verifying the application, the developer
realizes that
the schemas are not available. What should the developer do to resolve the problem?
A. Add the schemas in the BOM Editor.
B. Reference the schemas in the ruleapp project.
C. Package the schemas in the META-INF classes of the application.
D. Select the schemas in the dynamic execution object model property.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Resources registered with the tagging and rating engine can be grouped by
administrators. Which of
the following options best describes the methods by which resources are grouped?
A. URI
B. Type specification
C. URI, category specification
D. URI, type specification, category specification
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is a portal farm.?
A. A portal farm is a series of portal clusters used in high availability production
environments.
B. A portal farm refers to a series of identically configured, standalone server instances.
C. A portal farm is an edition of WebSphere Portal customized for the agricultural industry.
D. A portal farm is a setup of servers that are tightly coupled for failover and recovery.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is true about client-side aggregation?
A. Client-side aggregation is generally slower than server-side aggregation because more
processing happens on the client computer, which is generally less powerful than the server.
B. The portal built-in Page Builder theme allows you to configure whether that page is
rendered in
client-side aggregation mode or in server-side aggregation mode for each page.
C. Client-side aggregation can be enabled for all existing portlets.
D. Client-side aggregation cannot be used on Firefox browsers.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT true regarding WebSpere Portal v7.0 and VMware
support?
A. VMware can only be used when WebSphere Portal v7.0 is not clustered.
B. VMware can be used in a clustered WebShere Portal v7.0 environment.
C. VMware can be used in a non-clustered WebSphere Portal v7.0 environment.
D. VMware and WebSphere Portal v7.0 allow mass-replication of identical operating systems
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which option best describes valid aspects of deleting wikis and wiki pages?
A. A wiki page deleted directly in the wiki can be restored.
B. Deleting the wiki page also deletes the Web Content Viewer portlet and the web content
mapping.
C. To delete a wiki, you must delete the Web Content Viewer portlet and web content
mapping from the
portal page where the content is rendered, and then delete the template library used to
create the wiki.
D. Statements A, B, and C are valid.
E. Only Statement A and Statement B are valid.
Answer: D

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