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Exam Code: 920-470
Exam Name: Nortel (Nortel Converged Office for Comm Svr 1000 Rls5.x Plan and Eng)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
40 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Click on the Exhibit button.
In the configuration, the Office Communicator (OC) client has the capability of selecting a voice mail
option.
Which protocol provides the communications between the Office Communicator Server (OCS) 2007 Front
End Server and the Mediation Server?
A.SIP
B.RTP
C.TCP
D.MTLS
Answer: D

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NO.2 Click on the Exhibit button.
You are dispatched to engineer a Converged Office solution with Remote Call Control.
Which component in the exhibit performs the SIP CTI/TR87 functionality?
A.Application Proxy server
B.Network Connect Service
C.Active Directory
D.Signaling Server
Answer: D

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NO.3 Click on the Exhibit button.
An Office Communicator (OC) 2007 user makes a call to an IP telephone user. Both OC 2007 and IP
telephone users are talking with one another.
Which protocol shown in the exhibit provides the communications between the Office Communicator
Server (OCS) Proxy with MCM and the Mediation Server?
A.TCP/SIP
B.RTP
C.sRTP
D.SIP
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which statement most accurately describes the function of the Media Gateway Controller (MGC) card in
a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 5.0 system with Nortel Converged Office?
A.The MGC supports peripheral cards for TDM services.
B.The MGC provides basic call processing functions for the CS 1000E.
C.The MGC provides a gateway controller for IP media gateways in the CS 1000E.
D.The MGC acts as a Terminal Proxy Server (TPS) or virtual line card for the IP Phones.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A company is planning to deploy a new Communication Server (CS) 1000E with Nortel Converged
Office. They want to provide media security (SRTP) to encrypt the IP media path to and from all of the
DSP channels.
Which EC Report shows the correct components?
A.-@b$

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Exam Code: 920-471
Exam Name: Nortel (Nortel Converged Office CS 1000 Rls.5.x Config and Networking)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
62 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 A large customer needs a Nortel Converged Office solution that will support high availability for their
employees and allows for future growth of the organization. The customer currently has 100,000 users,
and is forecasting a potential growth of up to 10,000 users.
Which Nortel Converged Office deployment option would provide the optimum level of functionality?
A. OCS 2007 Standard Edition Consolidated configuration
B. OCS 2007 Standard Edition Expanded configuration
C. OCS 2007 Enterprise Edition Consolidated configuration
D. OCS 2007 Enterprise Edition Expanded configuration
Answer: D

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NO.2 A company recently deployed IP telephones in its Call Center. During peak traffic conditions, callers
receive an overflow tone and calls are blocked.
Assume the following settings:
Zone Number = 1
Zone Intent = MO
Intrazone Traffic = Best Quality
Interzone Traffic = Best Bandwidth
Resource Type = Shared
Which programming change is recommended in Element Manager (LD 117) to provide dedicated Digital
Signal Processor (DSP) resources to Contact Center IP telephones?
A. Change Zone Intent to VTRK
B. Change Resource Type to Private
C. Change Interzone Traffic to Best Quality
D. Change Intrazone Traffic to Best Bandwidth
Answer: B

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NO.3 The Network Routing Service consists of three basic components: Network Protocol, Database
Synchronization, and Database.
Which component(s) combines a SIP Redirect Server, SIP Registrar, H.323 Gatekeeper, and Network
Connection Service into a single application for network-based routing?
A. Database component
B. Call Server component
C. Network protocol component
D. Database synchronization and database component
Answer: C

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NO.4 A company plans to use the Virtual Trunk Interzone traffic. You are programming a bandwidth
management zone on a Communication Server 1000 Rls. 5.0 Call Server using Element Manager (LD
117).
Which is the recommended Bandwidth Management strategy, assuming that bandwidth conservation is
required?
A. MO
B. VTRK
C. Best Quality (BQ)
D. Best Bandwidth (BB)
Answer: D

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NO.5 You are configuring a Bandwidth Management zone on a Communication Server 1000 Rls. 5.0 Call
Server using Element Manager (LD 117). The Call Server zones will be used for Intrazone
communications between endpoints (IP telephones and gateways).
Which is the preferred Bandwidth Management strategy, assuming the network has adequate bandwidth?
A. MO
B. VTRK
C. Best Quality (BQ)
D. Best Bandwidth (BB)
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which Communication Server 1000 web-based administration application does the Signaling host?
A. Call Server
B. NRS Manager
C. Branch Office
D. Media Gateway
Answer: B

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NO.7 The customer network includes ranges of Directory Numbers that are routed over specific trunk routes
to other nodes in the network via Direct Steering Codes (DSCs) and route lists.
Which type of dialing plan is used?
A. Uniform Dialing Plan (UDP)
B. Flexible Numbering Plan (FNP)
C. Coordinated Dialing Plan (CDP)
D. Network Attendant Numbering Plan
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are implementing IP Peer Networking in a network that includes three Communication Server
1000 Rls. 5.0 systems. DN uniqueness cannot be maintained so it will be necessary to route calls using
site Location Codes (LOCs).
Which type of dialing plan is recommended for the call routing scenario?
A. Uniform Dialing Plan (UDP)
B. Flexible Numbering Plan (FNP)
C. Coordinated Dialing Plan (CDP)
D. Network Attendant Numbering Plan
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000 network that includes three CS 1000E systems
running Rls. 5.0 IP Peer Network. The customer has asked you when Digital Signal Processor (DSP)
resources are required.
How would you respond?
A. when a direct media path is required, without circuit switching
B. when it is necessary to connect to third-party SIP-enabled products
C. when it is necessary to connect to third-party H.323-enabled products
D. when it is necessary to transcode between IP and circuit-switched devices
Answer: D

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NO.10 You are using Element Manager to verify the system configuration before implementing IP Peer
Networking.
Which element can you configure or modify using Element Manager, assuming a VxWorks platform?
A. Call Server
B. Hardware watchdog
C. Network Connection Service
D. Basic Input Output System (BIOS)
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 922-102
Exam Name: Nortel (Nortel Converged Office for CS 1000 Rls. 5.x Configuration)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
32 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 You are dispatched to a customer site to assist with troubleshooting a Remote Call Control problem on a
Nortel Converged Office solution. You decide to turn on traces on the Communication Server (CS) 1000E
side of the solution. Which component on the CS 1000E performs the SIP CTI TR/87 functionality?
A.Network Routing Service
B.Signaling Server
C.Application Proxy server
D.Network Connect Service
Answer:B

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NO.2 During the installation of a new Nortel Converged Office solution you decide to perform packet captures
while making some test calls. After some analysis of the packet capture, you notice that the dual-forking
functionality is not working. Which is the correct Class of Service setting to enable twinning on a PCA
Terminal Number (TN) in a Nortel Converged Office solution with OCS 2007?
A.PCAG
B.PGNA
C.PRMA
D.PCAM
Answer:D

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NO.3 The Multimedia Communications Manager (MCM) Rls. 3.0 user account, on the Windows 2003 R2
server, requires privileges to perform administrative tasks on the local machine. Which local groups does
the user account need to be in to properly manage the MCM Rls. 3.0 application? (Choose two.)
A.local groups: Administrators Group
B.local groups: RTC Local Group
C.local groups: RTC Server Applications
D.local groups: RTC Server Local Groups
Answer:C D

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NO.4 While at a customer site installing a Nortel Converged Office solution, you test the Remote Call Control
and the Telephony Gateway feature with an IP telephone and Office Communicator 2007 client. You find
that the Remote Call Control and Telephony Gateway and Services feature is not working. After
troubleshooting you decide to review the basic requirements to deploy the solution. Which
Communication Server 1000 software package provides the Remote Call Control Telephony Gateway
and Services feature?
A.Package 77
B.Package 398
C.Package 406
D.Package 408
Answer:D

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NO.5 Click on the Task button. You have been asked to troubleshoot a Nortel Converged Office solution for a
Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 5.0 network. The customer requirements include a centralized
numbering plan arrangement using SIP Trunking. Click on the component in the diagram that is required
as part of the centralized numbering plan for the network.
Answer:

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Exam Code: NS0-530
Exam Name: Network Appliance (NCIE - DataFort Security Exam)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
118 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Which two statements are true if a System Card is removed in a functional, fully initialized DataFort?
(Choose two.)
A. Encryption services are disabled after a reboot.
B. Encryption services halt within five minutes of card removal.
C. Recovery Card replacement does not work.
D. DataFort sends SNMP trap and initiates shutdown to protect access to encrypted data.
Answer:AC

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about signed DataFort log messages? (Choose two.)
A. They contain a verifiable digital signature.
B. They can only be authenticated on the DataFort that generated the log message.
C. They may not be sent to a syslog server.
D. They may not be sent to a Windows event log.
Answer:AB

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NO.3 Which three factors should be considered when assessing the performance impact a DataFort will
have on an existing environment? (Choose three.)
A. the number of devices connected to a specific DataFort
B. the type of Cryptainer vault created (LUN Mapped versus Port Mapped)
C. the combined speed of all devices connected to the DataFort
D. the device type, tape or disk, being connected to the DataFort
Answer: ACD

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NO.4 Which property must be set to prevent overlapped SCSI commands?
A. dfc.serialize_storage_cmds
B. dfc.disable_overlapped_cmds
C. dfc.disable_host_LIP
D. dfc.isp.enableTaskMgmtPassUp
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which two can authorize Key Translation? (Choose two.)
A. the source DataFort administrator
B. the destination DataFort administrator
C. the LKM administrator
D. a quorum of Recovery Cards and passwords
E. a Recovery Key Archive file
Answer: DE

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NO.6 How many additional FC-switch ports are required for an inline direct-attached FC-5XX DataFort?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
E. 10
Answer:A

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NO.7 Which two statements about disk and tape I/O are true? (Choose two.)
A. Disk and tape I/O can be combined through the same standalone DataFort.
B. Disk and tape I/O can be combined through the same cluster but not through the same DataFort.
C. Disk and tape I/O cannot be combined through the same standalone DataFort.
D. Disk and tape I/O cannot be combined through the same cluster.
Answer: CD

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NO.8 Which two key policies allow for all keys to be pre-generated and replicated to the DR site? (Choose
two.)
A. key per tape
B. key per pool
C. Global Pool with single key
D. periodic disk rekey
Answer: BC

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NO.9 Which procedure is used to move keys between LKM servers or appliances that do not share network
connectivity?
A. clustering
B. key export and import
C. Key Translation
D. tape metadata
Answer: B

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NO.10 In 2.x firmware, how many virtual storage devices (targets) and virtual client hosts (initiators) can be
attached to a single FC525 model DataFort?
A. 1 virtual storage device and 8 virtual client hosts
B. 7 virtual storage device and 7 virtual client hosts
C. 8 virtual storage device and 8 virtual client hosts
D. 8 virtual storage device and 32 virtual client hosts
E. 16 virtual storage device and 128 virtual client hosts
Answer: B

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NO.11 If a DataFort 2.x or later appliance fails, which three information sources can be used with the DataFort
Wizard to recreate the configuration information on a replacement? (Choose three.)
A. *.xdf file from LKM software/appliance
B. mysqldump of DataFort configDB
C. *.xdf file from manual backup
D. *.lkm file from LKM software/appliance
E. surviving cluster member
Answer:ACE

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NO.12 During installation of the LKM server software, which configuration options can be specified?
A. database type and schema
B. target directory and license
C. server port number and "using SSL"
D. LKM server IP and hostname
Answer: B

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NO.13 In SAN 2.x, how many targets can be virtualized on an FC520?
A. 1
B. 7
C. 8
D. 31
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is the purpose of the Key Policy setting for tapes?
A. It determines whether or not each tape has a unique key.
B. It determines whether or not tape encryption keys can be shared by DataFort appliances.
C. It determines whether or not tape encryption keys are written to tape.
D. It determines how frequently tape keys are backed up.
Answer:A

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NO.15 When are Recovery Cards required in the trustee key-sharing process?
A. during the establishment of only the trustee relationship
B. during the establishment of the trustee relationship and the key export
C. during the establishment of the trustee relationship, key export, and key import
D. Recovery Cards are not required in the trustee key-sharing process.
Answer:A

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NO.16 What can the E-Series DataFort net util tcpdump command capture?
A. network packets going between two arbitrary machines
B. only network packets going between DataFort client-side NIC and arbitrary machines
C. only network packets going between DataFort server-side NIC and arbitrary machines
D. only network packets going between DataFort client-side NIC and server-side NIC
E. network packets going between DataFort client-side/server-side NIC and arbitrary machines
Answer: E

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NO.17 If you have an 8-node cluster, how many members must be online in the cluster in order to create
Cryptainer vaults?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.18 What are three valid forced media type and duplex mode settings on the DataFort? (Choose three.)
A. 1000baseTX, full-duplex
B. 1000baseTX, half-duplex
C. 100baseTX, full-duplex
D. 100baseTX, half-duplex
E. 10baseTX, half-duplex
Answer: ACD

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NO.19 California SB1386 requires businesses and government agencies to _____.
A. encrypt personal information on onsite backup tapes when reasonable alternative methods are not in
place
B. encrypt all personal information on offsite backup tapes when reasonable alternative methods are not
in place
C. encrypt all personal information on both disk and backup tapes, onsite or offsite, when reasonable
alternative methods are not in place
D. notify individuals if their unencrypted personal information is believed to have been disclosed to an
unauthorized person
E. notify the California District Attorney Office if unencrypted personal information is believed to have
been disclosed to an unauthorized person
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which is a correct System Card replacement procedure for SAN 2.x?
A. zeroize DataFort and restore with an initialized System Card and a recent configdb using a quorum of
Recovery Cards
B. zeroize DataFort and join an existing cluster with an uninitialized System Card and a quorum of
Recovery Cards
C. insert an uninitialized System Card into the DataFort and perform a System Card replacement using a
quorum of Recovery Cards
D. insert an initialized System Card from an existing cluster member and perform a System Card
replacement using a quorum of Recovery Cards
Answer: B

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Exam Code: NS0-102
Exam Name: Network Appliance (NetApp(ASAP) Accredited Storage Architect Professional)
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176 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 What is Tech OnTap from NetApp?
A. a weekly technical podcast
B. a monthly e-newsletter
C. a monthly Webcast by a NetApp specialist
D. an online knowledgebase for Data ONTAP
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two NetApp products can be used in a customer's existing third-party Exchange storage
environment? (Choose two.)
A. Single Mailbox Recovery software
B. ReplicatorX
C. SnapManager for Exchange
D. Operations Manager
Answer: AB

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NO.3 Which two Data ONTAP products or features benefit a customer running an Oracle decision support
system on Linux? (Choose two.)
A. CIFS
B. FlexVol
C. SnapValidator
D. Virtual Local Disks
Answer: BC

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NO.4 SnapManager for Oracle, SnapManager for SQL Server, and SnapManager for Exchange are all part
of which NetApp Manageability Software suite?
A. Data Suite
B. Server Suite
C. Storage Suite
D. Application Suite
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which capabilities does NetApp ONTAP GX provide to achieve high performance for render and
animation server farms?
A. N-Way Clustering and Global File System
B. Stretch Fabric MetroCluster and WAFL
C. Clustering with SnapMirror Sync
D. MetroCluster and RAID-DP
Answer: A

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NO.6 Your customer wants to run a database on a NetApp storage array where they already have home
directories.
In the event of low system resources, which NetApp product can ensure that the database receives the
majority of the storage array resources?
A. FlexClone
B. FlexShare
C. SnapManager for Oracle
D. FlexCache
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are two features that NetApp DataFort has that Microsoft's free EFS does not? (Choose two.)
A. FIPS hardware key security
B. CryptoShred
C. CryptoLock
D. SAN user-aware authentication
Answer: AB

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NO.8 Which two benefits would a customer enjoy after implementing SnapManager for Oracle into their
Oracle Database environment? (Choose two.)
A. reduced recovery time objective
B. transparent database migration
C. reduced database copy time
D. reduced mirrored database footprint
Answer: AC

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NO.9 What is a vFiler?
A. a virtual instance of a NetApp Storage System created via MultiStore
B. a controller running Data ONTAP that can front-end third-party storage
C. a simulated version of Data ONTAP that runs on Linux
D. a NetApp Disk-to-Disk virtual tape solution
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two protocol groups are supported natively on NetApp storage? (Choose two.)
A. NAS protocols (CIFS, NFS)
B. SAN protocols (ISCSI, FCP)
C. streaming protocols (RTP, RTSP)
D. messaging protocols (imap4, pop3)
Answer: AB

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NO.11 Which two statements are true about SnapRestore? (Choose two.)
A. After you use SnapRestore to revert to a selected Snapshot copy, you cannot undo the reversion.
B. After you use SnapRestore to recover a file, the restored file remains read-only.
C. SnapRestore allows for the recovery of a single file.
D. SnapRestore allows for the recovery of a qtree and its contents.
Answer: AC

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NO.12 Which feature of the NearStore VTL solution enables it to useup to 50% fewer physical tapes than other
VTLs?
A. shadow tapes
B. tape smart sizing
C. self tuning
D. tape compressor
Answer: B

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NO.13 Regulations call for semi-conductor manufacturers to maintain design data in reference form over
extended periods.
Which NetApp solution offers this capability?
A. SnapVault
B. Open System SnapVault
C. SnapLock
D. SnapMirror
Answer: C

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NO.14 Within the NetApp Manageability Software Family, which products does the Application Suite contain?
A. Protection Manager, Virtual File Manager, SAN Manager
B. SnapDrive for Windows, SnapDrive for UNIX, ApplianceWatch
C. Operations Manager, File Storage Resource Manager, CommandCentral Storage
D. SnapManager for Oracle, SnapManager for SQL Server, SnapManager for Exchange
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which three statements about SnapDrive for Windows are true? (Choose three.)
A. It is the foundation for SnapManager for SQL.
B. It provides NTFS-consistent Snapshot copies.
C. It simplifies LUN management in a Windows environment.
D. It simplifies CIFS management in a Windows environment.
E. It requires Active Directory to function.
Answer: ABC

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NO.16 Which two NetApp replication products support heterogeneous file service environments? (Choose
two.)
A. Virtual File Manager
B. Open Systems SnapVault
C. SyncMirror
D. SnapMirror
Answer: AB

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NO.17 In a SnapManager for Exchange opportunity, which two additional software components can help you
differentiate and grow NetApp value as compared to competing solutions? (Choose two.)
A. Single Mailbox Recovery software
B. SnapVault
C. VFM
D. SnapValidator
Answer: AB

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NO.18 Which three requirements do NetApp core data storage systems provide to ensure patient health care
data is compliant with health care regulations? (Choose three.)
A. archival
B. security
C. disaster recovery
D. high availability
E. high performance
Answer: ABC

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NO.19 What is a function of NetApp FlexClone technology?
A. It allows copies of database data sets with no additional space usage.
B. It shrinks volumes and LUNs.
C. It compresses databases.
D. It validates every block written by the database to the storage.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which two products/functions from NetApp are NOT supported on the V-Series platform? (Choose
two.)
A. SnapLock Compliance
B. RAID-DP
C. FlexVol
D. SnapLock Enterprise
E. SnapMirror
Answer: AB

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Exam Code: NS0-155
Exam Name: Network Appliance (NetApp Certified 7-Mode Data Administrator)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
189 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 How does the NetApp Remote Agent (RSA) connect to NetApp Support?
A. NetApp Support initiates a non-secure connection to the RSA.
B. NetApp Support initiates a secure connection to the RSA.
C. The RSA initiates a secure connection to NetApp Support.
D. The RSA initiates a non-secure connection to NetApp support.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Is NetApp storage Encryption supported in Data ONTAP 8.1.1 Cluster-Mode?
A. No, but you can file a PVR to request support.
B. No. it is targeted for a future release of Data ONATP .
C. Yes, only with a special license installed.
D. Yes, it has been supported since 8.0.1.
Answer: D

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NO.3 When using a Protection Manager policy to manage Open Systems SnapVault backups on a
UNIX
server, which three are valid objects to include in the data set? (Choose three.)
A. A file
B. A qtree
C. A directory
D. Theentire client
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 To collect per client NFS statistics on a storage system, the option nfs.per_client_stats.enable
must be set on.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 Data ONTAP uses inodes in an active file system to reference ___________.
A. qtrees
B. disk blocks
C. file segments
D. Snapshot copies
Answer: B

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NO.6 You can avoid data corruption when you issue the cf forcetakeover -d command if the remote
node is ________.
A. in a giveback mode
B. fenced off manually
C. powered on and accessible
D. powered off and inaccessible
Answer: D

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NO.7 What security mechanism can an administrator use on an OSSV client to set permissions
allowing
backups to a SnapVault secondary system?
A. Via /etc/hosts.equiv file
B. QSM access list modifiable via svconfigurator
C. Contents inside a file called access and located in OSSV /snapvault/etc
D. MD5 based authentication between SnapVault primary and secondary, with changeable
password
Answer: B

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NO.8 There are three phases of Non Disruptive Volume Movement (NDVM). What is the correct
sequence of these phases?
A. Setup Phase, Mirror Phase, Cutover Phase
B. Initialization phase, Copy Phase, Migrate Phase
C. Begin Phase, Move Phase, Complete Phase
D. Setup Phase, Data Copy Phase, Cutover Phase
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which three statements are true about SnapLock volumes? (Choose three.)
A. SnapMirror supports SnapLock volumes.
B. There are two types of SnapLock volumes.
C. SnapLock volumes support per-file retention periods.
D. In Data ONTAP 7.2.5.1 and later, SnapLock Compliance volumes are not supported on the VSeries
controller with NetApp Storage.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.10 Which Data ONTAP option sets system-wide throttling for all transfers?
A. options transfer.wide.enable
B. options transfer.throttle.enable
C. options replication.wide.enable
D. options replication.throttle.enable
Answer: D

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Exam Code: MB4-211
Exam Name: Microsoft (Solomon 6.0 Customization Manager)
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35 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Which of the following statements are true about how levels function in Customization Manager?
A.The Self level will results in screens opening with all customization levels for the screen being loaded.
B.The Standard level can be used to identify if a customization is causing an error in a screen.
C.After creating customizations for a screen the last thing you must do is set the Level to store the
customization at the desired level.
D.Levels can be used when implementing field level security.
Correct:A B D

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NO.2 For controls that will be displayed as columns in a grid, what determines which control will be
the left most column?
A.The first field that is placed on the panel.
B.The control on the panel with the lowest TabIndex value.
C.The field that is physically closest to the upper left hand corner of the panel.
D.The control on the panel with the lowest ColumnIndex property value.
Correct:B

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NO.3 Customization Manager is designed to allow you to do which of the following actions?
A.Create new applications.
B.Go through the standard Solomon fields in a screen and physically delete the fields that are not needed.
C.Implement field level security.
D.Add additional database fields to existing Solomon tables.
Correct:C

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NO.4 If you wanted to use Microsoft Query Analyzer to look at customizations, which statement
identifies where you might need to look?
A.CustomVBA table in the System database
B.CustomVBA table in the Application database
C.Custom2 table in the Application database
D.CustomVBA and the Custom2 tables in the System database.
Correct:D

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NO.5 How can you select an object in a screen?
A.Left click on the object to give it focus.
B.Select the object from the Object Name and Control field at the top of the Properties window.
C.Type the object name in the Name property field, when you leave the field the properties window will
switch to that control.
D.Select the object from the list of objects on the customization menu on the Solomon toolbar.
Correct:A B

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NO.6 How can you tell what properties have been modified for an object?
A.While in Customize mode the control has an asterisk next to it.
B.Use Query Analyzer to look at the customization record in the CustomVBA table.
C.Use the Customized Property Browser window.
D.Export the customization and review the file that is created.
Correct:C D

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NO.7 When using Customization Manager the order in which to create a customization is important.
What is the correct sequence of steps for creating any customization?
A.Turn on Customize Mode, open the screen that is being customized, make the modifications, save the
changes, and turn off Customize Mode.
B.Open the screen that is being customized, turn on Customize Mode, make the modifications, select the
proper level, save the customization, and turn off Customize Mode.
C.Select the proper level, open the screen that is being customized, turn on Customize Mode, make the
modifications, save the customization, and turn off Customize Mode.
D.Turn on Customize Mode, select the proper level, open the screen that is being customized, make the
modifications, save the customization, and turn off Customize Mode.
Correct:C

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NO.8 You need to test or demonstrate a new customization on a screen at a level that already has
customizations but you don want the new customization to be permanent. How can this be done?
A.Don save the new customization.
B.Tell Solomon to save the customization in the Custom2 table.
C.Delete the customization from the CustomVBA table when you are finished testing or demonstrating.
D.Check the Temporary check box at the bottom of the Select Customization Level screen.
Correct:A

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NO.9 Which of the following controls are typically bound to database fields?
A.Frame
B.Text box
C.Button
D.Combo box
Correct:B D

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NO.10 Which Customization Level will allow a screen to open with customizations applied but will
never allow you to add new customizations or modify existing customizations at that level?
A.Standard
B.Supplemental Product
C.All User
D.One User
Correct:B

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Exam Code: MB6-824
Exam Name: Microsoft (AX 2009 Human Resource Management)
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50 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 When can you start registering participants for a course?
A.The course is registered in their development plan.
B.When the course status is open.
C.When the course status is created.
D.As long as the registration deadline is not exceeded.
Answer: b

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NO.2 The company has just updated its mobile phones to the latest model and wants to start issuing the
phones to its employees. Before the company can do so, however, it must create each phone in which of
the following Human Resource tables?
A.Loans
B.Loan types
C.Loan items
D.Create loan items
Answer: c

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NO.3 The company wants to improve the professional support and counseling that it offers to employees.
You have been given the task of creating a matrix organization unit and assigning people to act as
mentors. When you start assigning mentors to the unit, you notice that some of them are already working
in one or more matrix type units. Which of the following rules apply to matrix organization units?
A.A person can be affiliated to an indefinite number of matrix units.
B.A person can be affiliated to a maximum of five matrix units.
C.A person can be affiliated to a maximum of ten matrix units.
D.A person can be affiliated to an indefinite number of matrix units, provided the person is already
affiliated to a line unit.
Answer: a

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NO.4 Until recently, the company's Chief Executive Officer (CEO) also performed the duties of a Chief
Operating Officer (COO). However, the company has just hired a new person to take over the
responsibilities of the COO position. You have been given the task of creating the new COO position and
must decide whether to make the position unique. For unique positions, which of the following is true?
A.Only one position can be unique in a unit.
B.For each position type, only one position can be unique in an organization unit.
C.You cannot hire or move another employee to a unique position that is currently occupied.
D.You can hire more than one employee into a unique position.
Answer: c

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NO.5 The Sales department has enjoyed considerable success recently and now needs additional support
with processing the new orders. To increase the number of sales support personnel, you decide to merge
a Sales Administration Unit with the Sales Unit. How do you merge the two organization units into one?
A.Drag a unit and drop one on another, and then click Confirm when asked, Merge?
B.Select an organization unit, and select the Move option, and then indicate the unit with which you want
to merge.
C.Move all employees from one unit to the other, and then close the first unit.
D.Right-click on a unit, and then select Merge With.
Answer: b

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NO.6 Which of the following are situations in which you would use reason codes?
A.When moving, hiring, or terminating an employee.
B.When assigning benefits.
C.When updating an employee resume.
D.When ending a recruitment project.
Answer: a

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NO.7 A new initiative has been launched within the company to examine overall levels of job satisfaction. A
part of the analysis involves tracking absence over the preceding year. Which of the following provides
department managers with a graphical overview of the amount and cause of employee absence?
A.Transactions
B.History
C.Absence statistics
D.Absence registration
Answer: c

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NO.8 An employee's main employment relation with the company is which of the following?
A.A role in the line organization.
B.A job in the line organization.
C.A position in the line organization.
D.An organization unit in the line organization.
Answer: c

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NO.9 A new employee is employed in a company and a HR assistant registers the employee data in the
Employee form. What optiona are available to categorize the employee type?
A.Internal and external employees.
B.Employees, contractors, and work centers.
C.An employee can only be registered as an Employee type.
D.A new employee is automatically registered as a Temporary and this option is mandatory until the trial
period expeires.
Answer: b

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NO.10 You want to assemble a group of employees to address a special business need. However, you do not
want the group to be part of your formal organization. Which of the following types of organization units
should you create?
A.A line unit.
B.A line and matrix unit.
C.A line unit as the parent, and then a matrix unit as the child.
D.A matrix or a project unit.
Answer: d

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NO.1 You are a desktop support technician for your company. Your company has a main office and three
branch offices. A user travels to all the offices with a portable computer that runs Windows Vista.
You need to ensure that the user can access network printers at any office without reconfiguring her
computer.
What should you do?
A. Restart the Printer Spooler service
B. Create a Deploy Printer connection in the User Configuration policy.
C. Create a Deploy Printer connection in the Computer Configuration Policy
D. Ensure that the Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS) service is started.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Download the LLTD Responder component from the Microsoft Website and install the component on
the computers that run Windows XP. The computers on the corporate network run Windows Vista. The
computers are configured to obtain IP addreses automically. A user reports that he cannot access
resources on the corporate network. You discover that the IP address of the users computer is
169.254.17.9 with a 16-bit subnet mask. You restart the computer, but the user still cannot access
resources on the corporate network.
You need to ensure that the user can access resources on the corporate network. What should you do?
A. Run the ipconfig / flushdns command with elevated privileges.
B. Run the net start "Workstation" command with elevated privileges
C. Run the net start "DHCP Client" command with elevated privileges.
D. Run the ipconfig / release command with elevated privileges and run the ipconfig / renew command.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are a desktop support technician for your company. The company's network consists of 10
Windows Vista computers and a server installed with Windows Server Update Services (WSUS). You
must centralize Windows Updates from Microsoft on all the computers.
You need to configure all the computers to retrieve updates from the WSUS server. What should you do?
A. Ensure the intranet statistics server and intranet Microsoft Update servers are hosted on different
servers
B. Ensure the intranet statistics server and intranet Microsoft Updates services are configured on the
Windows Vista computers.
C. Ensure that the Allow non-administrator to receive update notification Group Policy is enabled on all
the computers.
D. Ensure that all computers are in the same workgroup as the WSUS server.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are a desktop support technician for your company. Your company has a main office and a branch
office. You connect a new computer that runs Windows Vista to the main office network. You need to
ensure that the new computer can discover all the computers on the main office network. You also need
to ensure that all computers on the main office and branch office networks can discover the new
computer.
What should you do?
A. Set the Location type of the network to Public
B. Set the Location type of the network to Private.
C. Configure Windows Firewall to permit traffic on port 3389.
D. Create and assign a new IPSec policy that activates the Default response rule.
Answer: B

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NO.5 You are a desktop support technician for your company. Your company comuters run Windows Vista.
You need to verify the updates that have been installed on your Windows Vista computer.
Which two actions should you perform.? (Each correct answer present a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Click on View update history in the Windows Update applet.
B. Analyze the Security event log.
C. Click Check for updates in Windows Update applet.
D. Open the ReportingEvents.log file under %systemroot%\SoftwareDistribution to check whether the
update is applied.
Answer: AD

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NO.6 You are a desktop support technician for your company. The corporate network has a domain controller
that runs Microsoft Windows Server 2003 and computers that run Microsoft Windows XP Professional
and Windows Vista Business. You set up group policies on the domain controller.
When you logon to the corporate network, only the comptuers that run Windows Vista Business are able
to retrieve the updated policies.
You need to process the group policy for all the computers on the corporate network. Which Internet
Control Message Protocol (ICMP) setting should you enable?
A. Allow incoming echo request
B. Allow incoming mask request
C. Allow outgoing source quench
D. Allow outgoing parameter problem
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are a desktop support technician for your company. The computers in your company run Windows
Vista.
You need to recommend a solution to enable forwarding of events. The events must be encrypted when
they are forwarded. Which three configurations should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents
part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Open port 443 on the Windows firewall.
B. Ensure that all users have a user certificate.
C. Ensure that all computers have a computer certificate.
D. Configure the client computers by using winrm.exe
E. Select the Certficate Propagation service startup type to automatic.
Answer: ACD

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NO.8 You are a desktop support technician for your company. The computers on the corporate network run
Windows XP and Windows Vista in a single domain. The computers that run Windows XP do not appear
on the Network Map diagram. You need to ensure that all the computers appear on the Network Map
diagram. What should you do?
A. Install the UPnP networking serivce on the computers that run Windows XP.
B. Download the Link-Layer Topology Discover (LLTD) Responder component from the Microsoft Website
and install the component on the domain server.
C. Download the LLTD Responder component from the Microsoft Website and install the component on
the computers that run Windows XP.
D. Download the LLTD Responder component from the Microsoft Website and install the component on
the computers that run Windows Vista.
Answer: C

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NO.9 You are a desktop support technician for your company. The computers in your company run Windows
Vista.
A user reports that Disk Defragmenter is running on his computer when he arrives at the office. You
discover that Disk Defragmenter is set to turn at the same time that a software application maintenance
program is set to run.
You need to ensure that Disk Defragmenter runs at 3 A.M. on the user's computer. You must achieve this
goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. In Task Scheduler, locate the Disk Defragment task and set it to 3 A.M.
B. In Local Group Policy, set the Disk Defragmenter program to run at 3 A.M.
C. Open Task Scheduler and crate a new task to run the Disk Defragmenter program at 3 A.M.
D. Configure a Group Policy Object across the domain and set the Disk Defragmenter program to run at 3
A.M.
Answer: A

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NO.10 You are a desktop support technician for your company. The computers in your company run Windows
Vista.
You need to prevent users from installing devices on their computers. Your solution must achieve this goal
without modifying administrator permissions.
Which two policy settings in group policy object editor should you enable? (Each correct answers
presents part of the resolution. Choose two.)
A. Prevent installation of removable devices.
B. Allow administrators to override device installation policy.
C. Prevent installation of devices that match these device IDs.
D. Allow installation of devices that match any of these device IDs.
E. Prevent installation of devices not described by other policy settings.
Answer: BE

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NO.11 You are a desktop support technician for your company. The computers in your company run Windows
Vista.
The computers run Performance Monitor daily. Performance logging data is saved to a file named
perfmon.log.
You need to view the performance data in an SQL database. What should you do?
A. Use Sort.exe to output a .sql file.
B. Use Fc.exe to perform a binary comparison.
C. Use the type command to pipe the file to a .sql file.
D. Run Relog.exe to export the file to a new output file format.
Answer: D

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NO.12 You are a desktop support technician for your company.
You need to disable the User Account Control (UAC) feature for local administrators by using the Group
Policy Object Editor. Your solution must not disable UAC for standard users.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Set Disabled for the User Account Control. Run all administrators in Admin Approval Mode option.
B. Set Disabled for the User Account Control: Detect application installations and prompt for elevation
option.
C. Set Disabled for the User Account Control: Switch the secure desktoip when prompting for elevation
option.
D. Set Enabled for the User account Control: Admin Approval Mode for the Built-in Administrator account
option.
E. Set Elevate without prompting for the User Account Control: Behavior of the elevation prompt for
administrators in Admin Apprval Mode option.
Answer: AE

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NO.13 You are a desktop support technician for your company. The computers in your company run Windows
Vista. A user's computer automatically downloads and installs a critical patch for the vulnerability in a
system DLL file. The user reports that she receives an error emssage when she attempts to start
Windows.
You need to restore the user's computer to a bootable state without installing the earlier upate ifles. You
must achieve this goal by using the minimum ammount of administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Access the recovery console and run fixmbr c:.
B. Start the computer in safe mode and restore the original system DLL file.
C. Perform a system restore from the Windows Vista installation DVD and restore to an earlier date.
D. Access the recovery console from the Windows Vista installation DVD and extract only the original
system DLL file. Then, overwrite te faulty file.
Answer: C

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NO.14 You are a desktop support technician for your company. The computers in your company run Windows
Vista.
Users send security reports to the main office over the Internet using Windows Mail.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the security reports are encrypted when they are
transmitted over the Internet.
What should you recommend?
A. Use S/MIME.
B. Use POP3 with Secure Sockets Layer (SSL).
C. Use Encrypted File System (EFS).
D. Use SMTP.
Answer: A

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NO.15 You are a desktop support technician for your company. The Computers in your company run Windows
XP. You upgrade the comptuers to Windows Vista. You download new updates by using Windows Update
Agent. You discover that the update files are corrupted.
You need to force Windows Update Agent to download the entire update again.
What should you do?
A. Run the wuauclt.exe /detectnow command.
B. Run the wuauclt.exe /resetauthorization /detectnow command.
C. Stop the Windows Updates server and rename the C:\Program Files\WindowsUpdate folder. Then,
restart the Windows Update Service.
D. Stop the Windows Update service and rename the %systemroot%\SoftwareDistribution folder. Then,
restart the Windows Update service.
Answer: D

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NO.16 You are a desktop support technician for your company.
You set up event forwarding between a source computer and a collecting computer. The collecting
computer has a standard user set to run the subscription. The collecting computer displays the
subscription status as Trying. You verify that there is no error on the source computer and that the firewall
is conifgured correctly. You need to view the subscription run time status.
A. Use the Wecutil.exe command line utility.
B. Analyze the Security event log.
C. Analyze the dtcinstall.log file.
D. Use the Resultant Set of Policy console.
Answer: A

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NO.17 You are a desktop support technician for your company. Your company monitors user logon times on a
daily basis.
You need to generate a report when users log on after 9 A.M. and have it send to your e-mail account.
What should you do?
A. Create a new task, add the At Log On trigger, run a custom-created VBS file to check the time, and
send the e-mail message through the VBS script if the time is after 9 A.M.
B. Create a new task, add the At Startup trigger, run a custom-created VBS file to check the time, and
send the e-mail message through the VBS script if the time is after 9 A.M.
C. Create a new task, add the At Startup trigger, run a custom-created VBS file to check the time, and
send the e-mail message through the Task Scheduler if the time is after 9 A.M.
D. Create a new task, add the At Log On trigger, run a custom-created VBS file to check the time, and
send the e-mail message through the Task Scheduler if the time is after 9 A.M.
Answer: A

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NO.18 You are a desktop support technician for your company. All client computers at the company run
Windows Vista. The company uses Windows Server 2003 virtual private network (VPN) servers. You
need to recommend a solution to simplify the setup of VPN connections on client computers.
What should you recommend?
A. Create an .ins file and distribute it to all users.
B. Use the Connection Manager Administration Kit (CMAK) to build a service profile.
C. Configure Group Policy and the Network Connections options under Computer Configuration.
D. Configure Group Policy and the Network Connections options under User Configuration.
Answer: B

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NO.19 You are a desktop support technician for your company. The computers in your company run
Windows Vista. The computers have the All Comm and Secure Comm policies defined. You assign the All
Comm policy to the computers. You need to ensure that the computers encrypt all outgoing traffic.
What should you do?
A. Delete the All Comm policy.
B. Assign the Secure Comm policy.
C. Configure the All Comm policy to use a mirrored filter.
D. Set the soruce address of the existing filter to My IP Address.
Answer: B

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NO.20 You are a desktop support technician for your company. Your network contains an Active Directory
domain. All Windows Vista computers are joined to the domain. You need to ensure that the settings that
are configured are by using the Local Computer Policy are not applied to the Windows Vista computers.
What should you do?
A. Delete gpmc.msc.
B. Delete gpedit.msc
C. Disable registry policy processing.
D. Turn of Local Group Policy
Answer: D

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