2013年11月30日星期六

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Exam Code: 9A0-125
Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe Photoshop Lightroom 2 ACE Exam)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
136 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 Which of the following best describes the Camera RAW format?
A. Unprocessed, uncompressed full color picture
B. A processed but uncompressed image format
C. Unprocessed, uncompressed grayscale image data
D. A compressed image format produced form digital camera
Answer: C

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NO.2 .Drag and drop the appropriate tools to their respective descriptions.
Explanation:
The Sharpen tool is used to harden edges or area within an image. It works by increasing contrast of the
specified area. To use the Sharpen tool, drag the tool over the area of the image needed to be sharpen. It
sharps the image according to the size of the brush defined, and the strength and blending mode
specified in the Options bar. Hold down the Alt key (Windows) or the Options key (Mac) when this tool is
active to blur the image. The Sponge tool is used to change the amount of the color saturation in an
image. To change the color saturation, just click and drag with the tool on the image. The tool has two
modes, Saturate and Desaturate . When the Saturate mode is selected in the Options bar, the amount of
color saturation increases whereas the color saturation decreases when the desaturate mode is selected.
Effectiveness of the tool depends on the size of the brush defined and flow value specified in the Options
bar. The Spot Healing Brush tool works similarly to the Healing Brush tool. It enables a user to repair
imperfections of an image by painting with pixels around the retouched area of the image. It matches the
texture, lighting, transparency, and shading details of the pixels to the new surroundings, so that the
repaired pixels merge seamlessly with the rest of the image. The Dodge tool is used to lighten pixels in an
image and bring out the highlights. This tool lightens dark areas in the image according to the size of the
brush defined, range such as Shadows, Midtones or Highlights is selected, and the exposure value
specified in the Options bar. Hold down the Alt key (Windows) or the Options key (Mac) to temporarily
access the Burn tool and darken the image.

NO.3 When you open an HDR image in Photoshop, it looks very dark. Which of the following actions will you
take to adjust the image?
A. Choose Image > Adjustment > Brightness/Contrast
B. Choose Layer > New Adjustment Layer > Brightness/Contrast
C. Choose View > 32-Bit Preview Options.
D. Choose Edit > 32-Bit Image Adjustment.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.4 Which of the following blending modes is available only for the painting tools and allows you to add the
blend color only to transparent pixels of a layer?
A. Clear mode
B. Behind mode
C. Multiply mode
D. Darken mode
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.5 When you printed an image, Lightroom used the image's native resolution, and will neither upsamplenor
downsample the file. What can be the cause of this situation?
A. You have set theLightroom to optimize the resolution, depending on the size of the print.
B. You have disabled the Print Resolution box.
C. Lightroom is using the default resolution of 240 ppi.
D. Lightroom is using the resolution of the last photograph that was printed.
Answer: B

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NO.6 When you view a PSD file in Adobe Bridge, which of the following lets you view the file information?
A. Metadata
B. File Description
C. Info
D. Keywords
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are creating an image. You want to make multiple copies of a single object in the image. so that
when you edit one of the copies of the object, all the copies of the object are updated. What will you do to
accomplish the task?
A. Choose Image > Duplicate Object command.
B. Choose Image > Duplicate command.
C. Create a Smart Object.
D. Create duplicate layers.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.8 John works as a Graphics Designer in the Fashion Tech Inc. Currently, he is working on the
Photoshop CS4 Extended Edition. While working on an HDR image, he wants to apply the liquefy filter.
What steps should he perform to apply the filter on an HDR image?
A. Photoshop CS4 supports theliquify filter for the 32 Bits/Channel HDR image.
B. Convert the 32 Bits/Channel HDR image to 8 Bits/Channel HDR image.
C. Apply the smart filter first before applying theliquify filter.
D. Convert the 32 Bits/Channel HDR image to 16 Bits/Channel HDR image.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.9 Which of the following image adjustment tabs will you use to create special effects with color images?
A. Basic
B. Detail
C. Split Toning
D. Lens Corrections
Answer: C

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NO.10 You are working on a Raw image using the Adobe Camera Raw dialog box. What will happen if you
click on the Open button in the Camera Raw dialog box?
A. The originalRaw image is opened in Photoshop.
B. A newRaw image is opened in the Camera Raw dialog box.
C. A list ofRaw images is opened.
D. A copy ofRaw image is opened with the camera Raw settings applied in Photoshop.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following statements best describes the layer groups?
A. It groups the similar layers in one smart object.
B. It is a set of grouped layers in one group folder.
C. It groups the similar layers in one group folder.
D. It compiles multiple layers in one layer.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following is used to convert vendor specific raw data to universal raw data?
A. The Extract filter
B. The Convert to Profile command
C. The Assign Profile command
D. The Digital Negative Converter
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.13 You create an image for the Web. You used less than 256 colors in the image. The image contains
some transparent areas. The Image also has sharp edges including type. In which of the following file
formats will you save the image?
A. TIFF
B. JPEG
C. GIF
D. BMP
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.14 You want to add a graphical watermark with copyright information in one of your photographs. Which of
the following statements are correct in this situation? Each correct Answer: represents a complete

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solution. Choose all that apply.
A. You can only apply a graphical watermark.
B. You cannot set or customize the size, placement, or appearance of text-based watermark.
C. You can specify the color with the Detail Text option in the Color Palette panel.
D. You can only apply a text-based watermark.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.15 Which of the following tools in Photoshop is used to change the amount of the color saturation in an
image?
A. Burn
B. Clone Stamp
C. Sponge
D. Dodge
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.16 Which of the following statements truly explains the difference between a template and a preset?
A. You store a predefined layout in template and settings in preset.
B. A template is a predefined layout whereas a preset is always user generated.
C. Presets can be created, saved, and exported for other photographers to use, but template but not.
D. A template is a creative effect but a preset is a design pattern.
Answer: A

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Explanation:

NO.17 You have created a catalog of images on your laptop while shooting on location. Now, you want to
update the catalog by adding files that have been added to the folder but not imported into the catalog,
removing files that have been deleted, and scanning for metadata updates. Which of the following options
will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Click the question-mark icon in a thumbnail cell in the Grid view.
B. Click on the Update Catalog button in the Grid view.
C. Choose Library > Update Photos.
D. Choose Library > Synchronize Folder.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.18 Which of the following blending modes darkens the base color by increasing the contrast to reflect the
blend color?
A. Color Burn
B. Linear Burn
C. Clear
D. Behind mode
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.19 Which of the following options of Photomerge is used to select one image and set it as the vantage
point for the panorama?
A. Perspective
B. Reposition
C. Collage
D. Auto
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following options can you use to revert back to the Lightroom default settings?
A. Double-clicking individual slider controls.
B. Clicking the General - Zeroed preset in the Presets panel.
C. Choosing Undo from the Edit menu.
D. Clicking the Reset button.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 9A0-154
Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe Premiere Pro CS5 ACE Exam)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
150 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 Which of the following file formats uses the .mov extension?
A. QuickTime
B. MP3
C. P2 Movie
D. JPEG
Answer: A

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NO.2 Mark works as a Premiere Pro editor for company Inc. He wants to map the source audio channels so
that one or more groups of six channels are placed into separate 5.1 surround audio tracks. Which of the
following options will Mark choose to accomplish the task?
A. Choose the 5.1 option.
B. Choose the Set Linear Key-frame Thinning option.
C. Choose the Set Minimum Time Interval Thinning option.
D. Choose the Set the 5.1 Mixdown Type option.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following are the view area options available on the panel menu of the Export Settings
viewing area? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Chronic Pixel Preview
B. 1:1 Pixel Preview
C. SVG output Preview
D. Aspect Ratio Corrected Preview
Answer: BD

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NO.4 Which of the following options of the Title Properties panel is used to specify the amount of space
between lines of type?
A. Aspect
B. Slant
C. Tracking
D. Leading
Answer: D

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NO.5 In Timebase of the General tab, which option (frames/ second) will a user choose to edit PAL (European
standard) and SECAM video.?
A. 29.97
B. 28
C. 25
D. 24
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is used to shorten a clip in a Timeline by speeding up its playback, or to lengthen
it by slowing it down?
A. Rate Stretch
B. Ripple Edit
C. Rolling Edit
D. Razor
Answer: A

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NO.7 Mark works as a Premiere Pro editor for company Inc. He is optimizing the scratch disk performance.
Which of the following steps will Mark take if he has only one hard disk on his computer?
A. Leave all scratch disk options at their default settings.
B. Defragment the hard disk.
C. Create one more drive for Premiere Pro projects.
D. Create a separate folder for each file type of the project.
Answer: A

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NO.8 In which of the following locations are presets located? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose all that apply.
A. DVCPROHD > 720p
B. DVCPRO50 > 480i
C. DVCPROHD > 2160i
D. DVCPROHD > 1080i
Answer: ABD

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NO.9 Mark works as a Premiere Pro editor for company Inc. He is using time remapping. He has adjusted the
speed of an instance of a clip in the Timeline. This clip contains audio also. What will be the effect on the
audio of the clip while adjusting its speed by time remapping?
A. The audio speed will be synchronized with the clip speed.
B. The audio will not play.
C. The audio will be locked automatically.
D. The audio speed will remain at 100% speed.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following options is used to switch the selected object with the object directly in front of it
while changing the stacking order of objects in titles?
A. Send To Back
B. Bring Forward
C. Bring To Front
D. Send Backward
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following tools is used to simultaneously change the In and Out points of a clip in a
Timeline, while keeping the time span between them constant?
A. Rolling Edit
B. Ripple Edit
C. Track Selection
D. Slip
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following options in device control shows the number of frames to adjust the timecode
embedded in the captured video?
A. Preroll
B. Remained frames
C. Uncaptured roll
D. Timecode Offset
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following options of the General tab is used to specify the dimensions, in pixels, for
frames while playing back sequences?
A. Fields
B. Pixel Aspect Ratio
C. Display Format (Audio)
D. Frame Size
Answer: D

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NO.14 Fill in the blank with the appropriate term.
___________________is a standalone encoding application employed by programs, such as Premiere
Pro, After Effects, SoundboothEncore.
Answer: Adobe Media Encoder

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NO.15 Which of the following steps will you take to specify the tracks to change with Sync Lock? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Choose an option from the Placement menu for each type of track added.
B. Shift-click the Toggle Sync Lock box at the head of any track of that type.
C. Choose an option from the Track Type menu for audio and audio submix tracks.
D. Click the Toggle Sync Lock box at the head of each video and audio track that you want to be affected
by the edit.
Answer: BD

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NO.16 Choose and reorder the correct steps to apply effects to clips.
Answer:

NO.17 Which of the following steps will you take to create a template from an open title? Each correct answer
represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Click the triangle next to a category name to expand it.
B. With a title open, click the Templates button.
C. Enter a name for the title templatethen click the OK button.
D. Click the Templates menu button. Choose Import Current Title As Template.
Answer: BCD

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NO.18 Which option of batch capturing will you choose to capture frames beyond the In and Out points
identified for each clip in the batch?
A. Batch Capture
B. Capture panel
C. Capture With Handles
D. Override Capture Settings
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following Fast Color Corrector effects is used to display the left or upper part of the image
as the corrected view and the right or lower part of the image as the uncorrected view?
A. Show Split View
B. Layout
C. White Balance
D. Split View Percent
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following is used to specify how much before the In point Adobe Premiere Pro starts
playing the tape before capture?
A. Offline
B. Preroll Time
C. Detected
D. Timecode Offset
Answer: B

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NO.1 How is a Soft Body different from a Rigid Body?
A. Afield can't be connected to Soft Body particles.
B. Rigid Bodies can't be affected by a Dynamic constraint.
C. A Soft Body can be keyframed using the Set Active Key command.
D. Rigid Bodies don't deform.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which file format lets you exchange complex data between Maya and other software while
preserving the data's overall behavior?
A. OBJ
B. FBX
C. DXF
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which is the correct method to make the current transformations on the selected object be
the object's zero position
A. Edit>Delete option
B. Modify>Freeze Transformations option.
C. Modify>Delete Attribute Transformations option.
D. Skeleton>OrientJoint>Freeze Transformations option
Answer: B

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NO.4 What effect does the Break Tangent action have on a selected animation tangent?
A. Allows manipulation of the in and out tangent handles individually so you can edit the curve
segment entering or exiting the key without affecting its opposite handle.
B. Causes the manipulation of an in or out tangent handle to affect its opposite handle equally
C. Specifies that when you move a tangent, only its angle can be changed.
D. Specifies that when you move a tangent its angle and weight can be changed.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is meant by 'sampling'?
A. The amount of Rendering Layers to be calculated in an image
B. The amount of times the software will examine different areas of a pixel
C. The number of photons that get emitted into the scene.
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.6 What does the nConstraint Membership Tool for nCloth allows users to do?
A. Add vertices to a selected dynamic constraint
B. Remove vertices from a selected dynamic constraint
C. Both of the above.
D. Neither of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What modes can you work in when modeling with Subdivision surfaces?
A. Polygon mode and NURBS mode
B. Standard mode and Polygon mode.
C. Standard mode and Coarser mode.
D. NURBS mode and Component mode.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following BEST describes the Blend Shape deformer?
The Blend Shape deformer...
A. creates a joint system based on the topology of the surface
B. allows you use several target shapes to help reshape another piece of geometry.
C. is a special object you use to control the deformation effects of rigid skinning.
D. lets you manually sculpt NURBS, polygons, or Subdivision surfaces quickly with the stroke of a
brush
Answer: B

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Exam Name: IFPUG (Certified Function Point Specialist )
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Updated: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 When counting DETs which of the following rules apply?
A. Count a DET for each recursive field on the ILF or EIF
B. Count a DET for each piece of data in an ILF or EIF required by the user to establish a relationship with
another ILF or EIF
C. Count a DET for each repeating field that is identical in format
D. Count a DET for each field that appears more than once in an ILF or EIF
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is a user identifiable group of logically related data or control information referenced by the
application, but maintained within the boundary of another application?
A. An ILF
B. An IIF
C. An EIF
D. An ELF
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is an elementary process?
A. The smallest unit of activity that is meaningful to the developer
B. The largest unit of activity that is meaningful to the user
C. The smallest unit of activity that is meaningful to the user
D. The largest unit of activity that is meaningful to the developer
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following is an attribute used to represent relationships of one entity to another.?
A. Primary key
B. Secondary key
C. Foreign key
D. Domestic key
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which category (ies) of data entities is (are) usually identified to satisfy the Functional User
Requirements?
A. Business data
B. Reference data
C. Code data
D. Both A and B
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following is NOT an example of the purpose of a function point count?
A. To enable comparison of functionality delivered by two applications
B. To determine maintenance support cost per function point
C. To understand the percentage of lines of code that is being reused across three different applications
D. To determine the effort and duration of a development project
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is a (are) valid example(s) of code data?
A. Substitution data
B. Static data
C. Valid values
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.8 "Requirements specifically requested by the user to complete an elementary process" defines which of
the following terms?
A. Control information
B. Processing logic
C. Maintain
D. User identifiable
Answer: B

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NO.9 An EI is defined as:
A. an elementary process that processes data sent from outside the application boundary
B. control information sent from outside the user view
C. an elementary process that processes data or control information sent from outside the application's
boundary
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following is NOT true of a boundary?
A. It encloses the logical data maintained by the application
B. It is the physical interface between the software under study and its users
C. It is dependent on the user's external business view of the application and is independent of technical
and/or implementation considerations
D. It defines what is external to the application
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding an application functional size (FS)?
A. It provides a measure of the functionalities that an application provides to the user
B. It is never updated after the initial application installation
C. It is associated with an application's lifecycle
D. Both A and C
Answer: D

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NO.12 Control information is defined as data that:
A. defines an elementary process of the application being counted
B. influences an elementary process of the application being counted
C. controls an elementary process of the application being counted
D. does not influence an elementary process of the application being counted
Answer: B

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NO.13 An application FP count is defined as:
A. a measure of the current functions the application provides the user
B. the initial development project FP count
C. an enhancement project that alters the applications functions
D. the activity of applying this International Standard to measure the functional size of an application
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following statements regarding functional size measurement is true?
A. Early functional size measurements can never change during design and coding phase
B. It is quite normal to identify additional functionality that was not specified in the original requirements in
the form of scope creep
C. It is not necessary to update the application functional size upon completion of an enhancement.
D. Both B and C
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is true about conversion functionality?
A. Transactional or data functions provided to convert data and /or provide other user specified
conversion requirements
B. Exists only during the development or enhancement of an application
C. Conversion functionality is outside the scope of FP counting
D. Both A and B
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following defines the purpose of a count?
A. Provides an answer to a business question, and it is the business question that determines the
purpose
B. Influences the positioning of the application between the software under review and the surrounding
software
C. Influences the type of FP count to answer the business problem under investigation
D. Provides an input to the estimation process needed to determine the level of effort required to develop
the first release of an application
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following statements regarding the counting scope is true?
A. It defines the set of Functional User Requirements to be included in the FP count
B. It always includes more than one application
C. It determines the purpose of the applications being counted
D. It defines a (sub) set of the modules being sized
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following statements about an External Input is true?
A. Has the primary intent to maintain one or more ILFs
B. An elementary process to hold data or control information from outside the boundary
C. Has the primary intent to alter the behavior of a transaction
D. Has the primary intent to reference one or more EIFs
Answer: A

IFPUG   I40-420   I40-420

NO.19 The primary intent of an EI is to maintain:
A. One or more ILFs or alter the behavior of the application
B. One or more ILFs
C. One or more EIFs or alter the behavior of the application
D. One or more EIFs
Answer: A

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NO.20 An example of the purpose of an FP count is to provide:
A. input to the estimation process needed to determine the level of effort to develop the first release of an
application
B. a comparison of functionality delivered by two different suppliers' packages
C. determine the size of an application as part of the organization's effort to determine the size of its
software portfolio
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 299-01
Exam Name: Riverbed (Riverbed Certified Solutions Professional - Network Performance Management)
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NO.1 What are the two types of dashboards available within the Cascade Profiler GUI? (select 2)
A. Top Hosts
B. Top Applications
C. Public
D. Private
E. Devices and Interfaces Utilization
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 When creating an analytic service, the discovery process requires a minimum of:
A. At least three days of data available.
B. At least three weeks of data available.
C. The application specialist available.
D. Some historical data and some starting point (a server, port, application).
E. A customer network diagram available.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the relationship between a Host Group and a Host Group Type in Cascade Profiler?
A. A Host Group Type is a container that may contain multiple Host Groups.
B. A Host Group Type defines the name of the Host Group.
C. They are the same thing.
D. Each Host Group must be defined by the Type of application it serves; this is the Host Group
Type.
Answer: A

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NO.4 If a VLAN SPAN (VLAN101) is configured and monitored by Cascade Shark, which of the
following is true? (Select 2)
A. Inter VLAN101 traffic will be monitored; Intra VLAN101 traffic will not.
B. Intra VLAN101 traffic will be monitored; Inter VLAN101 traffic will not.
C. Both inter and intra VLAN101 traffic will be monitored.
D. It is a best practice to configure the Cascade Shark monitoring port (the SPAN destination) with
'deduplication' enabled.
E. It is a best practice to configure the Cascade Shark monitoring port (the SPAN destination)
without
'deduplication' enabled.
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 Cascade Profiler provides identity information collected from Active Directory 2008 by
installing and
correctly configuring the 'Cascade Connector' agent software on:
A. Every DNS server in the AD environment
B. Any server in the MS domain
C. Every client desktop in the AD environment
D. Every NTP server in the MS domain
E. The Microsoft Event Collector component in the AD environment
Answer: E

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NO.6 Quality of Service information is obtained from what Cascade sources?
A. Cascade Sensor only
B. Cannot get QoS data on Cascade
C. Cascade Sensor and Cascade Gateway
D. CascadeFlow traffic only
E. NetFlow and IPFIX traffic only
Answer: C

Riverbed   299-01   299-01

NO.7 What is a good way to know whether all internal IP addresses seen by the Cascade Profiler
have been grouped in a particular group type?
A. Run Automatic grouping for all group types.
B. Configure an Undefined group type with definition 0.0.0.0/0; confirm there are no entries when
you
'view members' of this 'Undefined' group'.
C. There is no way to do this and successfully capture all the IP addresses.
D. Configure an Undefined group type with definition 0.0.0.0/32.
E. Run a report by hosts and look for undefined groups.
Answer: B

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NO.8 For DNS reverse lookup, Cascade Profiler caches as follows:
A. Cache the most recent 500 IPs.
B. Obey DNS TTLs.
C. Cascade does not cache DNS responses.
D. For 24 hours.
Answer: C

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NO.9 When editing a previously configured service policy, what options become available if you
click the
'show advanced settings' checkbox? (Select 3)
A. Allows enabling/disabling the detection of dips in the metric.
B. Allows tuning of the tolerance range of the metric.
C. Allows setting of a noise floor for the metric.
D. Allows adjusting the notifications for the metric.
E. Allows enabling/disabling the detection of spikes in the metric.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.10 Within Cascade Pilot, to analyze the round-trip time in a trace file, you can:
A. Ask Riverbed Support to send you the proper View to use.
B. Open the View folders in Cascade Pilot to look for a View named "Round-trip time".
C. Use the View search box and enter "round".
D. Use the Help menu and search for round.
Answer: C

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NO.11 How do Cascade Performance Analytics assist with Performance Monitoring?
A. By setting intelligent static thresholds for Application metrics and Interface metrics, tolerance can
be
determined. Cascade will use these thresholds and tolerances to report on deviations indicative of
performance problems.
B. The Customer only needs to identify their critical hosts, interfaces and/or applications, and
Cascade
will automatically baseline their behavior and report on deviations indicative of performance
problems.
C. The Performance Analytics use knowledge of hosts, interfaces, and/or applications are able to
detect
security threats such as host scans and worms.
D. After baselining is completed, Cascade can re-route congested traffic to avoid congested
application
delivery paths.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Link Congestion policies apply to a specific interface and can: (Select 3)
A. Warn if either inbound or outbound traffic increases abnormally
B. Warn if an application component of traffic increases abnormally
C. Warn if traffic to/from specific hosts exceeds a specific utilization level
D. Warn if the response time across a link increases abnormally
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.13 Within the Cascade Pilot GUI, filtered items are often indicated:
A. With red text.
B. With yellow text.
C. With a funnel icon.
D. With a hash-mark icon.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following statements is true regarding SNMP polling and NTP syncing among
Cascade components?
A. Cascade Gateway's poll via SNMP sources of Netflow, while Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway
and
Cascade Sensor sync NTP from a common source.
B. Cascade Profiler's poll via SNMP sources of Netflow, while Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and
Cascade Sensor sync NTP from a common source.
C. Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from different sources, while
Cascade Profiler's poll via SNMP sources of Netflow.
D. Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from different sources, while
Cascade Gateway's poll via SNMP sources of Netflow.
E. Cascade Profiler does all SNMP polling and is also the source of all NTP.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Cascade Profiler's Switch Integration feature uses SNMP and adds the capability for Cascade
to report on which of the following. (Select 2)
A. User name
B. Host IP address
C. Host MAC address
D. The physical switch port a specific host is connected to
E. Switch port traffic levels
F. Switch port status
G. SNMP traps from the switch
Answer: C,D

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NO.16 If a report table on Cascade Profiler includes the "Server Delay" column but shows no value
for
"Server Delay" in some cells, what are the possible causes? (Select 3)
A. The time span of the report does not cover any connection set-up points
B. Server delay is zero.
C. The protocol used by the application in not TCP-based.
D. Application traffic was not seen by a Cascade Sensor.
E. The server plug-in is needed to measure "Server Delay" and not functioning correctly.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.17 What are two differences between NetFlow version 5 and NetFlow version 9 (select 2)
A. NetFlow version 5 generally support ingress flow export only; NetFlow version 9 supports both
ingress
and egress export.
B. NetFlow version 5 is used for Switches, NetFlow version 9 is used for Routers.
C. NetFlow version 9 includes information about CPU, Power-status and other router performance
characteristics; NetFlow version 5 does not.
D. NetFlow version 9 includes the ability to export the Time-To-Live (TTL); NetFlow version 5 does
not.
E. NetFlow version 9 includes the ability to export the packet latency, NetFlow version 5 does not.
Answer: A,D

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NO.18 Which of the following configuration changes can be used to reduce the number of alerts
generated overall for a Service?
A. Edit each Service policy to increase the Tolerance slider for Low and High alerts.
B. Edit each Service policy and set a noise floor to specify the minimum amount of change that the
policy
can treat as deviation from normalbehavior.
C. Edit the Service and select fewer metrics to monitor for each segment that comprises the Service.
D. Modify the location host group type used for monitoring end user traffic to use fewer groups (for
example, Region instead of Site).
E. A, B, C, and D.
F. A and B only.
Answer: E

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NO.19 If unable to connect to the Cascade Shark Appliance from the Cascade Pilot console it could
be
because. (Select 2)
A. The correct communication port(s) are NOT open on the firewall between Cascade Pilot and
Cascade
Shark.
B. The Cascade Shark is placed in "passthru" mode so Cascade Pilot access is not available
C. The Cascade Shark appliance has no capture jobs configured.
D. You may be running Cascade Pilot-Personal-Edition (PE). You need the full version of Cascade
Pilot to
connect to Cascade Shark.
E. Trend/Index data is disabled on the Cascade Shark Appliance.
Answer: A,D

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NO.20 When changing the priority for a Layer 4 mapping on Cascade Profiler best practices indicate
that
Application Mappings should be given higher priorities based on:
A. Longest Match
B. Shortest Match
C. IP & Port
D. IP
Answer: A

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Exam Code: BCP-222
Exam Name: BlackBerry (Supporting a BlackBerry Enterprise Server v5.0 in an IBM Lotus Domino Environment)
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NO.1 Which of the following default host and ports will a system administrator need to browse to in order to
configure the BlackBerry Monitoring Service? (Choose one.)
A. https://<servername>:8443/webconsole/app
B. https://<servername>/webconsole/app
C. http://<servername>/webconsole/app
D. http://<servername>:8080/webconsole/app
E. https://<servername>:7443/webconsole/app
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which method of enterprise activation uses the BlackBerry Router Service to relay the activation email
to a users email address? (Choose one.)
A. Wi-Fi
B. Bluetooth
C. BlackBerry Desktop Manager
D. BlackBerry Administration Service
E. BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
Answer: A

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NO.3 After a system wide maintenance was completed in an organization, the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
was restarted. After a few minutes it was determined that the BlackBerry Dispatcher
Service was failing to start with the system specific error 5608. The system administrator also confirms
the following:
-The BlackBerry Administration Service console is unable to launch
-The BlackBerry Policy and BlackBerry Synchronization Services do not start
Which of the following would be the most likely cause of the issue? (Choose one.)
A. The SRP connection is down
B. Lost connectivity to the messaging server
C. Lost connectivity to the database server
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server disk subsystem has crashed
E. A new operating system patch has been installed on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are the minimum versions for the BlackBerry Enterprise Solution to support Notes Native
Encryption? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Device Software 4.1, BlackBerry Enterprise Server 4.1, BlackBerry Desktop
Manager 4.1, IBM Lotus Notes 7.0, and IBM Lotus Domino Server 7.0
B. BlackBerry Device Software 4.0, BlackBerry Enterprise Server 4.0, BlackBerry Desktop
Manager 4.0, IBM Lotus Notes 7.0 and IBM Lotus Domino Server 7.0
C. BlackBerry Device Software 4.2, BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0, BlackBerry Desktop
Manager 4.2, IBM Lotus Notes 7.0 and IBM Lotus Domino Server 7.0
D. BlackBerry Device Software 5.0, BlackBerry Enterprise Server 5.0, BlackBerry Web Desktop 1.0, IBM
Lotus Notes 8.0 and IBM Lotus Domino Server 8.0
E. BlackBerry Device Software 3.6, BlackBerry Enterprise Server 4.1, BlackBerry Desktop
Manager 4.1, IBM Lotus Notes 6.5 and IBM Lotus Domino Server 6.5
Answer: A

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NO.5 How can a BlackBerry device user assign themselves their own enterprise activation password?
(Choose one.)
A. Inputtheir own password in the enterprise activation screen on the BlackBerry device
B. Specify an activation password in BlackBerry Desktop Manager
C. Launch BlackBerry Device Manager and specify their own activation password
D. When swapping BlackBerry devices the new BlackBerry device will automatically prompt the user for a
new activation password
E. Login to BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager and specify an activation password
Answer: E

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NO.6 The BlackBerry Dispatcher Service communicates with the BlackBerry Collaboration Service, the
BlackBerry MDS Connection Service, the BlackBerry Policy Service and the BlackBerry Synchronization
Service using which of the following ports? (Choose one.)
A. Port 1433
B. This Port is dynamically created upon the BlackBerry Dispatcher Service Startup
C. Port 3200
D. This Port is dynamically created upon the BlackBerry Controller Service Startup
Answer: C

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NO.7 What component is responsible for the encryption and decryption of data? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
B. BlackBerry Administration Service
C. BlackBerry Controller Service
D. BlackBerry Messaging Agent Service
E. BlackBerry Router Service
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following options is NOT available in the BlackBerry Web Desktop Software? (Choose
one.)
A. Wired synchronization of organizer (PIM) data
B. Application Loader
C. Backup and Restore
D. Setting enterprise activation passwords
E. Configuring email message filters
Answer: A

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NO.9 An organization policy has been changed and new security guidelines have been put in place. All
servers that require access to the public Internet must be placed in the DMZ. Which BlackBerry Enterprise
Server component can be place in the DMZ? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Messaging Agent
B. BlackBerry Router Service
C. BlackBerry Dispatcher Service
D. BlackBerry Enterprise Server
E. BlackBerry Collaboration Service
Answer: B

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NO.10 During the final stage of the wireless enterprise activation the following error is displayed on the
BlackBerry device: IT requires that you connect this handheld to the device manager to continue
activation. What is a possible cause of this? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry device does not have data services enabled
B. The BlackBerry Synchronization Service is not started
C. Wireless backup has been disabled for the user
D. The BlackBerry device is running BlackBerry Device Software prior to 4.0
E. The Disable Wireless Bulk Loads IT policy has been enabled
Answer: E

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NO.11 After initializing the enterprise activation process on the BlackBerry device, the following error is
displayed: An error has occurred. Please contact your system administrator. What is a possible cause for
this? (Choose one.)
A. The user has not been assigned an IT policy
B. The BlackBerry Synchronization Service is not running
C. The BlackBerry device radio has not been turned on
D. The password that was entered is incorrect
E. The user has not been assigned the appropriate role in the BlackBerry Administration Service
Answer: D

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NO.12 A BlackBerry device user is trying to login to the local Intranet web site but is not able to
authenticate. What could a system administrator do to assist the user with the authentication? (Choose
one.)
A. Resend the IPPP service books to the user that is experiencing the issue
B. Verify the proxy server information within the Blackberry MDS Connection Service
C. Restart the BlackBerry Administration Service to force resending of service books
D. Activate the user with the BlackBerry MDS Integration Service
E. Add the user's name to theserver.property xml file within the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
Answer: B

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NO.13 Where can you test the network connectivity from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server to the BlackBerry
Infrastructure? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry Administration Service
B. BlackBerry Web Desktop Manager
C. BlackBerry Server Configuration Panel
D. MDS Integration Service Administration Console
E. SQL Management Studio
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following are two pieces of information that are required when configuring a remote
component for high availability? (Choose two.)
A. IP addresses
B. Fully Qualified Host Name
C. High Availability Pool Name
D. NetBios Name
E. DNS Alias
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 The BlackBerry Monitoring Service can send notifications using which of the following methods?
(Choose three.)
A. Phone (VoIP)
B. Email
C. PIN
D. Network Broadcast
E. Instant Messaging
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.16 BlackBerry device users have been calling the support desk all day reporting message delays of 5 to
25 minutes. A request has been made to isolate the issue and identify the source. Which of the
following questions will assist with the process? (Choose three.)
A. Do the affected users span multiple messaging servers?
B. Are PIN messages delayed (sending and/or receiving)?
C. Is each user enabled for email message redirection?
D. Was the corporate firewall recently rebooted?
E. Are the messaging servers working properly and without issues?
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.17 .A BlackBerry device user is trying to send an email message but is receiving the following error when
trying to send: Failure at Service. The user is unable to send PIN messages as well. They are able to
make phone calls from the BlackBerry device. No other user on the BlackBerry
Enterprise Server is having this issue. What could a system administrator do to troubleshoot this issue?
(Choose one.)
A. Restart the BlackBerry Controller Service to force a mailboxrescan.
B. Associate the user's PIN number back into the database for the users information.
C. Contact the service provider to ensure the correct data provisioning for the user.
D. Wipe the BlackBerry device and complete and enterprise activation process.
E. Ensure the Send As permission is set in Active Directory for this user.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which port is required to be open on the firewall in order for Wi-Fi data to pass from the
BlackBerry device to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose one.)
A. 3101
B. 4101
C. 1433
D. 1533
E. 7433
Answer: B

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NO.19 How is the initial enterprise activation email message transmitted from the BlackBerry device? (Choose
one.)
A. Encrypted using AES
B. Encrypted using RSA
C. Plain text
D. Encrypted using Triple DES
E. As a hash
Answer: E

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NO.20 During the enterprise activation process the following error is displayed on the BlackBerry device:
IT Policy Rejected What is a possible cause of this error? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry device has been activated on another BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. The BlackBerry device is listed in the Enterprise Service Policy
C. The user does not have an IT policy assigned
D. The user does not have the appropriate role assigned
E. The BlackBerry Policy Service is not running
Answer: A

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Exam Code: BCP-811
Exam Name: BlackBerry (Developing Java Applications for the BlackBerry Platform)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
122 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 An application is needed that can store a list of sales data and customer information. The application
will also need the ability to search through this data and summarize it in an efficient manner. Which data
storage mechanism will assist in meeting all of these requirements? (Choose one.)
A. SQLite
B. PersistentStore
C. RecordStore
D. RuntimeStore
E. FileConnection
Answer: D

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NO.2 An application receives notification that a new data object is being saved in the RuntimeStore. It may
take up to 60 seconds to save this data. Which method should the application use to obtain the object
from the RuntimeStore? (Choose one.)
A. get( long objectUID )
B. getInstance()
C. fetch( Class objectClass, long timeout )
D. waitFor( long objectUID )
E. put( long objectUID, Object anObject)
Answer: D

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NO.3 The following application is set to auto-run at startup:
Which approach would most reliably solve the problem this application will encounter? (Choose one.)
A. It should callThread.sleep() for ten seconds before pushing the screen to verify that the
BlackBerry device has completed its boot up process
B. Threads should be moved to their own standalone class so that they do not cause a security exception
C. Theint values in the MenuItem constructor should equal the y MenuString length to leave enough room
for the string
D. It should use theApplicationManager.inStartup() before pushing the screen to verify that the BlackBerry
device has completed its boot up process
E. It should use theApplicationManager.inStartup() before pushing the screen to verify that the BlackBerry
device has completed its boot up process
F. It should use theApplicationManager.inStartup() before pushing the screen to verify that the BlackBerry
device has completed its boot up process
G. ThemakeMenu method of MainScreen must be overridden to use a menu
Answer: D,E,F

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NO.4 Consider the code below:
How will the connection route be affected? (Choose one.)
A. The connection is never routed through the BlackBerry Infrastructure
B. The connection is routed over the cellular network
C. The connection is routed over the Wi-Fi
D. The connection is routed over the BlackBerry Internet Service -B
E. The connection is never routed through the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
Answer: E

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NO.5 Which two of the following operations should be avoided on the main event thread? (Choose two.)
A. Pushing a screen onto the display stack
B. Displaying a Dialog screen
C. Performing network communication
D. Calling the sleep method
E. Capturing of keyboard input
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 A BlackBerry device application collects information about several hundred books. The application
needs to sort books by title. Which combination of data structures should be used to manage the objects?
(Choose one.)
A.net.rim.device.api.util.SimpleSortingVector and net.rim.device.api.util.StringComparator
B. java.util.Hashtable and net.rim.device.api.util.StringComparator
C. net.rim.device.api.util.StringRepository and net.rim.device.api.util.StringPattern
D. java.util.TreeSet and net.rim.device.api.util.StringComparator
E. java.util.Stack and net.rim.device.api.util.StringComparator
Answer: A

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NO.7 Consider the addTask() method defined below. Its purpose is to receive incoming tasks and put them
into a Vector, _tasks. Another thread will continuously remove the task at index 0 from the Vector.
Assuming that addTask() is being invoked at a rate roughly equal to the rate at which the tasks are being
processed, which concurrency issue may occur during execution? (Choose one.)
A. Livelock
B. Deadlock
C. Race condition
D. Starvation
E. Unfairness
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which three of the following options are contained in a component pack? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Device Simulator
B. JavaDocs
C. API Library
D. Code signing keys
E. Unit Tests Framework
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 An application requires the creation of a custom field that can display animation. Which class and
method combination should be used to accomplish this task? (Choose one.)
A. Field.paint(Graphics graphics)
B. MainScreen.paint(Graphics graphics)
C. Field.subpaint(Graphics graphics)
D. Screen.draw(Graphics graphics)
E. GameCanvas.paint(Graphics graphics)
Answer: A

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NO.10 A developer has been asked to create an application that will display the full name of all people in a
BlackBerry device user address book. The following code is written:
Which two of the following actions must be taken before this code is executed to ensure
compatibility across all versions of BlackBerry Device Software? (Choose two.)
A. The application should initialize all entries of thecontactName String array to empty Strings
B. The application should use theContact.countValues method to verify that the Contact.NAME field
contains an entry
C. The application should verify that it can write to the user address book using
theApplicationPermissions API
D. The application should use theisNull method to verify that the Contact.NAME values are not null
E. The application should use theContactList.isSupportedField method to verify that the
Contact.NAME field can be read
Answer: B,E

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NO.11 A developer is designing a BlackBerry device application that provides summaries of large amounts of
data. The summaries require extensive computations. Which design approach will meet these
requirements? (Choose one.)
A. Store the full set of data locally on removable media using a compressed format
B. Supplement memory available on the BlackBerry device and compute the results locally
C. Use URL encodings to expedite the transfer of data between a remote server and the
BlackBerry device
D. Compute the summary on a remote server and access the results through a BlackBerry
Enterprise Server connection
E. Use local storage and the floating point processor on the BlackBerry device to speed up computations
Answer: B

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NO.12 A customer needs an application that will store temporary data and expose it to other BlackBerry device
applications. Which API will meet this requirement? (Choose one.)
A. RuntimeStore
B. PersistentStore
C. Location Based Services
D. Global Events
E. Connector
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which two of the following classes could be used to check the coverage status? (Choose two.)
A. Radio
B. ConnectionFactory
C. TransportInfo
D. CoverageSate
E. CoverageInfo
Answer: C,E

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NO.14 Which push header should be used to verify that push requests are received by a BlackBerry device
application? (Choose one.)
A. X-Rim-Push-Reliability: Transport
B. X-RIM-Push-Deliver-Before Mon, 03 Aug 2009 15:52:00 GMT
C. X-RIM-Push-Deliver-After: Mon, 03 Aug 2009 15:52:00 GMT
D. X-Rim-Push-Priority: High
E. X-Rim-Push-Reliability: Application
Answer: E

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NO.15 A developer is writing a game with custom graphics and animations that will need to fit on multiple
screen sizes for various BlackBerry devices. The developer needs to minimize the number of images
created for the game. Which API will support these requirements? (Choose one.)
A. SVG
B. Display
C. Transition
D. Multimedia
E. Game
Answer: A

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NO.16 Consider the code below:
What is a more efficient way of calculating the midpoint? (Choose one.)
A. int midpoint = (int) ((double) width) / 2.0;
B. int midpoint = Fixed32.div(width, 2);
C. int midpoint = (int) (width * 0.5f);
D. int midpoint = width >> 1;
E. int midpoint = width >> 2;
Answer: D

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NO.17 Consider the following small application which creates a linked list like structure:
After execution, at which statement does the ListElement object created at line 6 become a candidate for
garbage collection? (Choose one.)
A. 16
B. 17
C. 21C.21
D. 22D.22
E. 23E.23
Answer: B

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NO.18 Consider the Counter class whose code is below:
Assuming that the go() method is always invoked serially, why is a different count printed at the end
almost every time that it is invoked? (Choose one.)
A. Therun() method is not declared "synchronized"
B. The _count variable is not declared "synchronized"
C. The ++ operator is not atomic
D. The _count variable overflows
E. The Counter class is not declared "synchronized"
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which block of code will ensure that a network connection has been closed? (Choose one.)
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which keys are required to use the encryption classes in the Java API in order to store encrypted data
on a BlackBerry device? (Choose one.)
A. Code development keys
B. Code signing keys
C. Code runtime keys
D. Code encryption keys
E. Code storage keys
Answer: B

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