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Exam Code: HP0-M26
Exam Name: HP (Infrastructure Monitoring using HP SiteScope v9)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
60 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Which SiteScope term refers to a collected value, performance parameter, URL, or similar system
response?
A. Metric
B. Monitor
C. Threshold
D. Service Level Management
Answer: A

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NO.2 With which HP Software Products can SiteScope be integrated? (Select three.)
A. HP LoadRunner
B. HP Asset Manager
C. HP Software as a Service
D. HP Business Availability Center
E. HP Project and Portfolio Management
F. HP Change and Configuration Manager
Answer: ACD

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NO.3 How do you use the SiteScope Configuration tool?
A. Disable pop-up warnings, change the default interface port, and change the default installation
directory.
B. Change the default SiteScope interface port, import/export group files and templates, and then alter the
Heap parameters.
C. Edit the SiteScope interface port, change operating system settings to allow for better SiteScope
performance, export and import user data.
D. Edit the SiteScope interface port and protocol, change the default installation directory and change the
default administrator access credentials.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Click Next or More to continue.
<_p><11>pnl21|pnl6|
<_p><11>pnl22|pnl2|
<_p><11>pnl23|pnl1|
<_p><10>pnl5|pnl3|
492dd584670f? 492dd585170b
Click the Task button.
Arrange the steps of the monitoring process in the correct sequence.
Answer:

NO.5 What are pre-requisites for tuning SiteScope? (Select two.)
A. SiteScope must be installed as a standalone server.
B. All instances of SiteScope must run on the same server.
C. Disconnect SiteScope from the network being monitored.
D. A single instance of SiteScope must be running on a server.
E. SiteScope must be installed on the server that is to be monitored.
Answer: AD

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Exam Code: HP0-J26
Exam Name: HP (Designing and Implementing HP SAN Solutions)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
213 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 A single Fibre Channel router is implemented in an existing SAN. What can be accomplished?
A.fabric management service
B.fabric interconnection without merge
C.SAN availability improvement
D.SAN extension across long distances
Answer:B

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NO.2 Which Fibre Channel timing variables must match in an interoperable fabric?
A.Timing variables do not need to match.
B.R_A_TOV, E_D_TOV and B_B_TOV
C.R_A_TOV and E_D_TOV
D.R_A_TOV and B_B_TOV
Answer:C

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NO.3 You are implementing a SAN infrastructure including an HP StorageWorks EVA4400 at a
customer site. The customer is interested in using three-site cascaded replication functionality.
What should you recommend to accomplish this? (Select two).
A.HP StorageWorks FlexCopy
B.HP Continuous Access EVA
C.additional disks in the EVA
D.HP Virtual Replicator
E.HP Business Copy EVA
Answer:B E

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NO.4 Which information should be included in the topology map documentation of a SAN design
provided to your support organization? (Select two.)
A.serial numbers of connected servers
B.SAN switch zoning configurations
C.storage controller operating mode parameters
D.IP addresses of the connected servers
E.World Wide Names of all nodes and devices
Answer:B C

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NO.5 Which HP tool provides the ability to create a Microsoft Visio diagram of a SAN topology for a
customer documentation?
A.SAN Health
B.SAN Designer
C.SAN Visibility
D.SAN Navigator
Answer:C

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NO.6 What has the most influence on the response time of a hard disk drive?
A.arbitration
B.host request
C.rotational delay
D.seek time
Answer:C

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NO.7 To install additional switches, you must determine the ideal ISL ratio. Which ISL ratio range is
recommended for less I/O intensive application requirements (less than 70 MB/s at 2 Gb/s, less
than 140 MB/s at 4 Gb/s, less than 280 MB/s at 8 Gb/s)?
A.3:1 to 1:1
B.1:1 to 3:1
C.15:1 to 7:1
D.7:1 to 15:1
Answer:B

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NO.8 You are preparing for a homogeneous fabric merge and notice the customer set the same
domain ID for all fabrics. What will happen if this is not corrected?
A.Enabled zone configurations are immediately disabled.
B.Domain IDs remain unchanged and the fabrics become segmented.
C.Domain IDs are automatically renumbered and the fabrics merge, but port zoning is affected.
D.Domain IDs are automatically renumbered and the fabrics merge without any side effect.
Answer:B

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NO.9 You are preparing an installation plan for implementing a new SAN design and want to ensure all
customer needs are included. Which data collection method requires that you create a process
list and review all relevant stakeholders?
A.Card Arrangement
B.Information Extraction
C.Brainstorming
D.Process Mapping
Answer:B

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NO.10 Which features can affect performance in a SAN? (Select three.)
A.cable modes
B.number of ISLs
C.type of LC connector
D.storage array configuration
E.type and capacity of disks used
F.storage access restrictions
Answer:B D E

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Exam Code: HP2-061
Exam Name: HP (HP ProLiant Server Maintenance )
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
365 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 What advantage does Direct Attached Storage (DAS) have over a Storage Area Network
(SAN)?
A. easy deployment
B. sufficient use of resources
C. server based management model
D. easily shared resources across multiple servers
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the only RAID level that can sustain two simultaneous drive failures?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 0+1
C. RAID 4
D. RAID 6
Answer: D

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NO.3 Wherecan youfind the latest ProLiant Support Pack (PSP)? Select TWO.
A. the latest SmartStart CD
B. the latest Firmware Maintenance CD
C. from www.hp.com drivers and updates
D. the latest HP ProLiant Systems Management CD
Answer: A, C

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NO.4 A customer would liketo move four 73GB universal SCSI drives from their DL380 to
their MSA1500. Whichdrive shelf must be used to support the four 73GB drives on the
MSA1500?
A. MSA20
B. MSA30
C. MSA50
D. MSA500
Answer: A

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NO.5 WhichHP ProLiant Server feature communicates regularly with the HP Server Health
Driver to provide automatic restarting after a processor failure?
A. Embedded HP Diagnostic Utility
B. RBSU - Rom Based Server Utility
C. ASR - Automatic Server Recovery
D. HP Systems Management Homepage
Answer: C

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NO.6 Our customer reports that theHPuninterruptiblepower supply (UPS) repeatedly makes a
clicking sound. What is happening?
A. The clicking sound is a warning that the batteries are about to fail.
B. The batteries in the UPS have failed and are disconnecting themselves.
C. The UPS is regulating the power through the 'buck/double boost' feature.
D. The batteries have entered the 'intelligent charging' state and the sound will stop once
the batteries have rapid charged to 90%.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which HP utilityis usedto set cache read/write ratios for tuning performance?
A. Array Diagnostics Utility
B. Array Configuration Utility
C. HP Systems Insight Manager
D. Option ROM Configuration for Arrays
Answer: B

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NO.8 WhichHP reference tool is available for each ProLiant product and includes information
on features, standard parts and options, models, service offerings, storage capacity,
component layout (high level), memory upgrade information, and specifications?
A. Quickspecs
B. Illustrated Parts Catalog
C. Setup and Installation Guide
D. ProLiant Servers Troubleshooting Guide
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are troubleshooting data corruption issues on two HP ProLiant servers connected to
the same MSA1500. You suspect it is because both servers are trying to mount and use
the same LUNS (logical units). In the MSA1500, whichfeature can you enable and use to
ensure each server gets only the storage intended for it?
A. Secure Path Manager (SPM)
B. Advanced Data Guarding (ADG)
C. Selective Storage Presentation (SSP)
D. Option ROM Configuration for Arrays (ORCA )
Answer: C

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NO.10 Whichstatementdescribes the ProLiant BL series servers?
A. ultra-dense and power-efficient
B. offers maximum internal expansion
C. self-contained, ready-to-go clustering solution
D. density optimized for rack-mounting environments
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which iLO capabilities are enabled with the iLO Advanced Pack? Select THREE.
A. Virtual Media
B. Virtual Power
C. Active Directory Integration
D. iLO Online Firmware Update
E. Terminal Services Pass-through
F. Virtual Graphical Remote Console
G. HP Systems Insight Manager Integration
Answer: A, B, F

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NO.12 Whatare benefits of Serial ATA (SATA) drives? Select TWO.
A. highest reliability
B. highest capacity
C. lowest price per GB
D. highest performance
E. medium to heavy read/write operations
Answer: C, D

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NO.13 DRAG DROP
Match the term with the definition.
Answer:

NO.14 Which item is required to troubleshoot a single p-Class blade server that has been
removed from its enclosure?
A. network interconnect adapter
B. diagnostic adapter and station
C. server blade management module
D. Integrated Lights-Out remote console
Answer: B

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NO.15 In direct attached mode, what is the maximum number of servers that can be connected to
the MSA500?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
E. 8
Answer: C

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NO.16 Whatare special requirements for Online Spare Memory? Select TWO.
A. The second populated bank is used as the spare memory bank.
B. Online spare memory must be configured in the ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU).
C. The DIMMs in the spare bank must be the same size or larger than those in the other
banks.
D. When online spare memory is present, the spare memory bank is counted during the
power-on self-test (POST) and is added to the system memory count reported to the
operating system.
Answer: B, C

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NO.17 On which server family is the iLO Advanced Pack enabled by default?
A. BL servers
B. CL servers
C. DL servers
D. ML servers
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is the minimum number of drivesneeded in RAID ADG?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: A

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NO.19 What are the two essential building blocks of modular PDUs? Select TWO.
A. control unit
B. extension bars
C. SNMP/serial card
D. extended runtime module
E. 1U/0U mounting brackets
Answer: C, E

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NO.20 WhichHP CD/DVD set provides HP service and technical support information and
includes advisories, release notes, as well as, product documentation?
A. HP Services Media Library
B. HP Part Surfer Reference Set
C. HP Maintenance and Service Guide
D. Onsite Agent's Reference Set (OARS)
Answer: D

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NO.21 How do you migrate a four disk RAID 0+1 volume on a SmartArray controller to RAID
5?
A. Use the Windows Disk Management applet.
B. In Windows, run the Array Configuration Utility (ACU).
C. Boot the system and press F9 to access the ROM Based Setup Utility (RBSU).
D. Boot the system and press F8 to access the Online ROM Configuration for Arrays
(ORCA) utility.
Answer: B

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NO.22 What are properties of Advanced Data Guarding? Select TWO.
A. It is recommended for up to 14 drives.
B. It protects against a ROM failure or corruption.
C. It protects against two simultaneous drive failures.
D. It allocates two sets of parity data across the drives and allows simultaneous write
operations.
E. It allocates half of the drive to data and the other half to mirrored data, providing two
copies of every file.
Answer: C, D

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NO.23 Why are blanking kits in an HP rack important?
A. to improve cooling
B. to improve rack stability
C. to improve appearances
D. to improve bottom-to-top airflow
Answer: D

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NO.24 WhichHP web offering provides an easy way to get the most up to date parts information
without detailed instructions?
A. HP Part Surfer
B. HP SIM Homepage
C. HP Parts Exchange
D. HP Onsite Agent's Reference (OARS)
Answer: D

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NO.25 What is the maximum number of P-class Blade Server Enclosures supported by one
Scalable Bus Bar?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: D

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NO.26 You install a second processor in your DL380G4 but then the system does not power on
self test (POST) as expected. What is the first thing you should do?
A. Boot to the RBSU and run the server diagnostics to determine the issue.
B. Remove the second processor and upgrade the system ROM to the latest version.
C. Create a ROM diskette from ROM Based Setup Utility (RBSU) and flash the system
ROM.
D. Put the new processor into the primary socket and flash the system ROM to the latest
version.
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which statements are true regarding PCI-X technology?Select TWO.
A. In a PCI-X system the speed is determined by the fastest device.
B. Conventional PCI adapters can operate in PCI-X systems and vice versa.
C. A PCI-X adapter placed on a conventional PCI bus is not limited to conventional PCI
speeds.
D. PCI-X is forward and backward compatible with PCI 2.2 systems at the system,
device driver and adapter levels.
Answer: A, B

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NO.28 Which processor currentlyuses64-bit x86-based architecture?
A. Itanium
B. Pentium IV
C. AMD Opteron
D. Pentium III Xeon
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which Remote Management offering allows graphic and text virtual console?
A. iLO 2
B. RILOE II
C. iLO Advanced
D. Lights-Out 100
Answer: B

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NO.30 Whatare features of HP Systems Insight Manager? Select FOUR.
A. device discovery
B. extended integration
C. fundamental integration
D. easy and rapid installation
E. secure remote management
F. web browser and command-line interface
Answer: A, B, D, E

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Exam Code: HP0-P13
Exam Name: HP (Planning and Design of HP Integrity Server Solutions)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
70 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Which applications will benefit most from porting from 32-bit to Itanium 64-bit processors? (Select two.)
A. web services
B. floating point calculations
C. very large databases
D. online transaction processing
E. mission-critical applications
Answer: BC

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NO.2 A customer is currently using 32-bit processors in their data center. At present, they are not running out
of disk space for their applications, and they have not had to create partitions for their databases.
What advantage can this customer gain by switching to 64-bit computing? (Select two.)
A. greater security and availability
B. reduced diskspace costs
C. faster response times for queries
D. fewer processors required for tasks
E. potential reduction in licensing costs
Answer: DE

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NO.3 Which functions are provided by Integrity Virtual Machines but not by hard partitions?
A. failover protection for high availability
B. ability to run multiple operating systems simultaneously
C. electrical isolation
D. dynamic resource allocation
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which high-availability feature keeps a system running in spite of a multi-bit DRAM error?
A. chip spare like memory
B. memory scrubbing
C. dynamic page deallocation
D. address control parity
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statements are true about memory in cell-based Integrity systems? (Select two.)
A. Memory modules of different sizes can be mixed in the same cell.
B. Cell local memory can be configured as a percentage of memory.
C. Cell local memory is faster than interleaved memory for providing access to memory on other cells in
the system.
D. Memory must be installed in dual quads of the same size memory modules.
E. Cell-based systems require cell local memory.
Answer: AB

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NO.6 Which statement is true regarding I/O technologies in HP Integrity servers?
A. PCIe uses a dual simplex point-to-point topology to move data.
B. PCI-X and PCIe support complex routing.
C. PCI, PCI-X, and PCIe use parallel buses.
D. PCI and PCIe are connector-compatible.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which feature of an HP Integrity cell-based server enables you to replace a failed processor on one
partition, while the other partition is running?
A. dynamic processor deallocation
B. Instant Capacity (iCAP)
C. electrically isolated partitions
D. hot plug processors
Answer: C

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NO.8 Your customer wants to permanently move processor usage rights within a server. Which type of
licensing is needed?
A. TiCAP
B. vPar
C. GiCAP
D. iCAP
Answer: D

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NO.9 When you are designing an HP Integrity solution, which HP tool should you use to determine power
consumption?
A. Capacity Advisor
B. sizing tool
C. Performance Quick Reference Tool (PQRT)
D. power calculator
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which feature of the HP sx2000 chipset makes the Integrity rx7640 server a better choice for high
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A. double chip spare
B. Hyper-Threading
C. link self-healing
D. Dynamic Processor Resilience
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-J34
Exam Name: HP (Implementing MSA Storage Solutions)
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289 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Which statement is true about the MSA Storage Management Utility?
A. It is only located on the master MSA controller module.
B. It resides on any server connected to the SAN.
C. It resides on the SAN management server.
D. It is located on either of the MSA controller modules.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Several different methods are used to protect data. One method uses snapshots. What is an accurate
description of a snapshot?
A. source independent physical image of a volume
B. logical copy of a volume on another controller
C. remote copy of a volume on another storage array
D. source dependent logical image of a volume
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer has an MSA2324fc with dual controllers. What is required when adding an MSA70 drive
enclosure to this configuration?
A. dual I/O modules on MSA controllers
B. a dual domain I/O module option
C. two additional miniSAS to miniSAS cables
D. a minimum of 16 dual-ported SAS drives
Answer: B

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NO.4 The HP StorageWorks MSA2000 Family Storage Management Utility is used to manage which
components?
A. drive modules and virtual disks
B. disk groups and virtual disks
C. master volumes and replication groups
D. pre-fetch cache and disks
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which key benefits does the MSA2012fc provide? (Select two.)
A. clone and snapshot capability
B. ability to mix disk drives of different sizes in a virtual RAID set without capacity loss
C. flexible drive types and sizes
D. controller-based replication capability
E. support for dual-ported SATA disk drives
Answer: AC

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NO.6 Which array-head chassis for the MSA2000fc G2 has 24 drive bays?
A. large form factor chassis
B. medium form factor chassis
C. s mall form factor chassis
D. high density form factor chassis
Answer: C

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NO.7 What are valid hardware capabilities of the MSA2000? (Select two.)
A. snapshots on MSA2000fc only
B. data replication between arrays
C. clones on any MSA2000
D. SAS backend bus
E. tri-port SATA drives for high availability
Answer: CD

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NO.8 In addition to using the WBI or CLI, how can you set the date and time on an MSA2324fc G2 solution?
A. by issuing the set controller-ntp enabled command through CLI
B. b y issuing the set controller-time command through CLI
C. automatically as soon as the first host is connected
D. b y configuring the system to use Network Time Protocol (NTP)
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which data protection capabilities does the MSA2012i array provide? (Select two.)
A. up to 255 snapshots
B. up to 255 volume copies
C. 128 volume copies
D. 128 snapshots
E. 64 volume copies
F. 64 snapshots
Answer: CF

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NO.10 Which MSA model allows you to connect to up to 64 hosts?
A. MSA2012sa
B. MSA2000i
C. MSA2000fc
D. MSA2000sa
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-J37
Exam Name: HP (Implementing XP24000, XP20000, XP12000, XP10000)
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59 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 What does an HP StorageWorks XP based solution provide that other HP storage offerings do not?
(Select two.)
A.simple management with enterprise class features
B.best Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)
C.support for the largest number of operating systems
D.support of DAS-to-SAN migration
E.highest level of scalability
Answer: CE

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NO.2 How many drive slots are reserved exclusively for spare disks in the XP24000 disk array?
A.2
B.4
C.6
D.8
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statement correctly describes HP StorageWorks External Storage XP?
A.The uptime of the total solution is increased by using any array as external storage.
B.Hosts connected to the XP can see the native type of external arrays.
C.Hosts and external storage can be connected to the XP through direct connect or a SAN.
D.Hosts and external storage can share port connections on the XP.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are using HP StorageWorks Business Copy XP to make a copy of a production volume for testing
purposes. Your HP-UX server has the Logical Volume Manager (LVM) feature installed. Which restriction
applies for the primary (P-VOL) and secondary (S-VOL) volumes?
A.When in the PAIR state, the host can write to the S-VOL.
B.When doing a reverse resync operation, the host can write to the P-VOL.
C.When the pairsplit operation is complete, the host can write to the S-VOL.
D.During a pair resync quick restore, the host can write to the P-VOL.
Answer: C

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NO.5 On the XP24000 initial release, which volume types can be used by HP StorageWorks XP Snapshot?
(Select two.)
A.secondary volume
B.external volume
C.snap volume
D.external storage volume
E.primary volume
Answer: AE

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NO.6 What does HP StorageWorks XP Thin Provisioning provide?
A.automatic addition of disk capacity to a provisioning pool
B.utilization of capacity in existing volumes
C.enhanced performance from a global pool of LDEVs
D.global allocation of physical disks across all array groups
Answer: C

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NO.7 When creating a Business Copy pair on an XP20000, the operation reports an error. You check the
status of both the primary volume (P-VOL) and secondary volume (S-VOL). In which state do both the
P-VOL and the S-VOL need to be for this operation to be successful?
A.pair-ready
B.duplex
C.initialized
D.simplex
E.cleared
Answer: D

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NO.8 When using HP StorageWorks XP Business Copy, what is the maximum number of secondary volumes
that can be paired to a primary volume?
A.3
B.8
C.9
D.12
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is a function of the XP Custom Volume feature?
A.splits the fixed-size volume to improve data access performance
B.splits a logical volume to improve data access performance
C.combines fixed-sized volumes to form a large volume to conserve space
D.combines array groups to form a large volume to conserve space
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the benefit of HP StorageWorks XP for Data Exchange software?
A.allows data to be shared among heterogeneous disk arrays
B.shares data between mainframe and open systems servers
C.provides tape drive emulation and automated migration to physical tape devices
D.migrates data across different RAID levels
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-B11
Exam Name: HP (HP Designjet Foundations Datasheet)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
88 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 What HP Designjet printers are ideal for professional applications software? (Choose two answers.)
A. The HP Designjet 1930 series
B. The HP Designjet 1050 series
C. The HP Designjet 4500 series
D. The HP Designjet 5500 series
Answer: BC

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NO.2 What is the function of feeder ink?
A. Cleaning the printhead.
B. Assistance in cleaning up the feed and share clips.
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C. Mounting of cartridges and ink in the printhead.
D. Submission of ink in the tube during the closing and cleaning printheads.
Answer: A

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NO.3 For some reason the line can be a bit uneven? (Choose two options.)
A. Damage printhead
B. Too heavy paper
C. The deformation of the paper itself
D. The use of paper, which was kept in extreme conditions
Answer: AD

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NO.4 .Which printer models, Designjet possible to update the firmware?
A. 1000 series and 500 series
B. 400 series and 1000 series
C. 400 series, 500 and 800 series
D. 4000 series and 100/120/130 series
Answer: C

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NO.5 .What is the main characteristic of the format JPEG?
A. Format the image file with the tagged content.
B. Format of the image file, in which the indexed color palette.
C. image file format that uses compression technology with data loss.
D. Preservation of formatting for the file to be transferred between computer architectures.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What are the reasons for the need to pack for HP Designjet? (Choose two answers.)
A. Need to update a driver
B. The need to upgrade RAM
C. Need to update the firmware
D. The need for hardware upgrades
Answer: AC

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NO.7 Which printers are equipped with built-in web server? (Choose two answers.)
A. Designjet 70/90
B. Designjet 5500
C. Designjet 1000
D. Designjet 4000
E. Designjet 500/800
Answer: BD

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NO.8 .A team of mechanical engineering production company wants to buy Designjet. What is the purpose,
that client will use the HP Designjet? (Choose two answers.)
A. Drawings
B. Pre-press proofing
C. High quality pictures
D. Printing from CAD applications
Answer: AC

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NO.9 .In some models when installing a roll Designjet function folding excess material in the paper roll is
performed in accordance with the sequence of treatment users. What gives?
A. A minimum of waste paper.
B. Paper does not get dirty.
C. Accuracy of using the tracking parameter length of the material.
D. Proper protivonatyazhenie material in the boot process to prevent warping of the paper.
Answer: A

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NO.10 .Which statement is true with respect to PCL?
A. Optimized for printers Designjet.
B. Requires more memory the printer than the memory card HP-GL.
C. It is used for printing high quality graphics in vector form.
D. It is used for printing high quality graphics in bitmap format.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which statements about forming a halftone images when printing is correct? (Choose two answers.)
A. halftone is an image in the "Sepia".
B. halftone image is converted into a series of dots that simulate the original image.
C. Formation of the grayscale image - a process of varying the density and structure of black and white
dots to simulate shades of gray.
D. Formation of a grayscale image - a process of varying the density and structure of blue, purple and
yellow dots to limit the amount of ink required for your vehicle.
Answer: BC

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NO.12 You're on your printer Designjet, printheads which have been configured. The printer re-installed and
ready for inclusion. What is the next step should be taken?
A. Before turning to manually fill the tube with ink.
B. Hold the top button, turn the power to automatically fill tubes with ink.
C. Set the configured printheads and follow the instructions on the front panel display.
D. Remove the printheads are configured, installed in the cartridge for transportation, establish a working
print heads, and include meals.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which statement describes the process of custom color management based on profiles of ICC?
A. The user has no control over the process of displaying non-CMYK colors.
B. U user less able to manage the display of non-CMYK colors.
C. U user more control over the process of displaying non-CMYK colors.
D. Management of the display outside the CMYK color corresponds to the work without the use of profiles
ICC.
Answer: D

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NO.14 .What is the purpose of refilling ink system ink DesignJet printer after installation asymmetric-type?
A. Ensuring the proper pressure inside the cartridge.
B. Complete removal of ink, which could remain inside the tubes.
C. Initialization of the cartridge and a smart card printhead (accumen).
D. Ensure complete removal of air from the pipe system and adequate pressure of ink.
Answer: A

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NO.15 What are the main characteristics of format TIFF?
A. File format images tagged content.
B. File format images, which are indexed color palette.
C. image file format that uses compression technology with data loss.
D. Preservation of formatting for the file to be transferred between computer architectures.
Answer: B

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NO.16 .Which statement about the differences in the printer ICC profiles between the driver and the
RIP-processor is true?
A. For a given material and the print mode, there is always a unique profile ICC.
B. color management firmware runs your printer, and the same information is used for transformation.
C. ICC printer profiles in RIP-processor optimized for printing test prints, and profiles in the driver
optimized for photos.
D. printer ICC profiles in the RIP-processor is the profile of the color system CMYK, and driver profiles -
profiles with the color system RGB.
Answer: D

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NO.17 When you want to fill the system Designjet printers asymmetric-type?
A. Filling not required.
B. After 10000 cycles, scanning along the axis.
C. Each time you change tubes for ink.
D. When you first start, and the replacement of tubes for ink.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which statement best describes the products HP Designjet?
A. The line of products includes HP Designjet ink-jet printers HP large format.
B. The line of products includes HP Designjet HP Inkjet Printer small size.
C. A product line includes the HP Designjet Laser Printers HP large format.
D. Product line includes HP Designjet Laser Printers HP small format.
Answer: A

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NO.19 For some reason the ink soak into the paper, making the lines blurred and fuzzy? (Choose two
answers.)
A. The air inside the printhead
B. Wrong temperature
C. The paper does not cover the back side
D. Too high humidity
Answer: BD

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NO.20 What HP Designjet printers are ideal for professional graphics applications? (Choose two answers.)
A. The HP Designjet 1930 series
B. The HP Designjet 4500 series
C. The HP Designjet 5500 series
D. The printer HP Designjet 500/800 series
Answer: BC

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Exam Code: Hp2-B29
Exam Name: HP (Consulting on HP PrintingSolutions)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
60 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Where can you apply the knowledge learned while implementing solutions for a customer who is part of
a vertical market?
A. in all vertical markets
B. in your own business
C. with other similar customers
D. with enterprise customers
Answer: D

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NO.2 Where is the best place to find information about HP solutions?
A. HP Easy Fix
B. HP Partner Portal
C. HP Instant Reference Guide
D. HP Global Solutions Catalogue
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are the results of using HP MFP to consolidate the functionality of several devices? (Select two.)
A. increased space
B. increased toner life
C. increased functionality
D. increased paper savings
E. increased storage capacity
Answer: A, E

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NO.4 What do you need in order to provide your customer with an HP printing solution? (Select two.)
A. knowledge of the HP portfolio
B. an understanding of your customer's needs
C. the ability to identify competitive situations
D. knowledge of how to deliver complex technology
E. an understanding of your customer's corporate structure
Answer: B, E

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NO.5 What helps you to successfully sell and implement a solution.?
A. Experience
B. revenue sharing
C. supplies knowledge
D. transactional selling knowledge
Answer: D

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Exam Code: Hp2-E30
Exam Name: HP (HP BladeSystem Sales Consultant (2010))
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
42 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Which statement best describes blade server evolution?
A. Blade servers evolved from storage hardware and services.
B. Blade servers evolved from the creation of virtualization software.
C. Blade servers evolved from the consolidation of traditional rack mount servers.
D. Blade servers evolved from mainframe technology.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are the key differentiators for HP BladeSystem when compared to competitive offerings?
A. Form factors, Thermal Logic technology and Enclosure technology
B. Virtual Connect technology, Thermal Logic Technology and Insight Control
C. Virtual Connect technology, MTBF ratings and low purchase price
D. Intel processors, Enclosure technology and Virtual Connect technology
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which advanced infrastructure management software allows customers to analyze and optimize
physical and virtual resources, by decreasing virtualization complexity and increasing infrastructure
agility?
A. Thermal Logic
B. Virtual Connect
C. HP Insight Dynamics
D. Dynamic Power Capping
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which HP BladeSystem enclosure is appropriate for branch offices or smaller deployments?
A. c3000
B. c7000
C. BladeCenter QS22
D. Rack 10000 Series
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement best describes current data center infrastructures
A. Costs remain steady as IT administrators can now fit more blades into current infrastructures.
B. Energy costs are rising as it becomes more difficult to adequately power and cool the data center.
C. Resource allocation has become simpler because data centers are creating silos of compute
resources.
D. Routine administrative tasks take less time because data centers are often centrally located on one
campus.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-T15
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP BladeSystem)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
105 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 What will mixing RDIMMs and UDIMMs in an HP server blade do?
A. halt the server blade during BIOS initialization
B. have no effect; the server blade is booting up normally
C. have no effect as long as the types are not mixed within pairs
D. cause a boot loop
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the maximum number of BL685c G6 Server Blades that can be directly attached to an HP
Storage Worksheet iifA

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Exam Code: HP3-019
Exam Name: HP (HP Laserjet 4200 / 4300 serleS)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
30 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 How many heating elements are in the fuser on the LaserJet 4200/4300 printer?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.2 In order to prevent overheating and print quality defects, what is the minimum space required for
ventilation on the left and right sides of the HP LaserJet 4200/4300 printer ?
A. 30 mm (1.2 in.)
B. 50 mm (2.0 in.)
C. 101 mm (4 in.)
D. 160 mm (6.4 in.)
Answer: B

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NO.3 How are cleaning pages printed on the LaserJet 4200/4300 series printers.?
A. manually only
B. automatically only
C. manually or automatically
D. not printed from these printers
Answer: B

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